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Displaying Questions 1 through 50
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Topic: H
Haalah as a Baby-Girl�??s Name
Question 117394: As-salāmu ʿalaykum.Im Tharik, Sri Lankan, Me & My Wife Expecting a baby girl, So we are seeking for her good name. i am Decided to keep her name as Halah. So Please describe me about the...
Question 117394: As-salāmu ʿalaykum.Im Tharik, Sri Lankan, Me & My Wife Expecting a baby girl, So we are seeking for her good name. i am Decided to keep her name as Halah. So Please describe me about the name and or suggestion with good name for my baby girl.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.The name Haalah is a good name and we advise you to name your baby-girl with it. Some female companions had this name, among whom were Haalah Bint Khuwaylad, who was the sister of our mother Khadeejah and Haalah Bint 'Awf Az-Zuhriyyah, the sister of 'Abdur-Rahmaan ibn 'Awf, who was one of the ten companions who were given glad tidings to enter Paradise. The name Haalah is derived from the word Al-Haalah; which is the beam of light around the moon. Ibn Fares said in Mu�jam Maqaayees Al-Lughah [an Arabic Dictionary]: Haalah: is the light circle around the moon." [End of quote] There are many good names of righteous women from this nation, such as the names of the female companions and the names of the women in the generation that followed them. They are names that motivate people to be connected to the religion and to follow the example of the righteous predecessors of this nation. Among the good names as well is the name Maryam; after the name of Mary (Maryam), may Allaah exalt her mention. At-Tabaraani reported with a chain of narrators which is not strong (inauthentic) from Abu Bakr ibn Abu Maryam, from his father, from his grandfather, who said: "I came to the Prophet (saw) and said: 'A new baby-girl was born to me last night.� Thereupon, the Prophet (saw) said: 'And last night Soorah Maryam was revealed to me; so name her Maryam.� So she was named Maryam." For more benefit, please refer to Fataawa 286006, 373321, and 200387.Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Haatim al-Taa�i in the Sunnah
Question 94985: What did Prophet Muhammad say regarding Hatim Tai?.
Question 94985: What did Prophet Muhammad say regarding Hatim Tai?.
Answer:
Praise be to Allah.
There are a number of ahaadeeth which mention
Haatim al-Taai, some of which are hasan (good), some da�eef (weak) and some mawdoo� (fabricated).
(a)
It was narrated that �Adiyy ibn Haatim said: I said to the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him),
�My father used to uphold the ties of kinship, and do such and such� Will he have any (reward) for that?� He said, �Your father seeking something
and he got it.�
This was narrated by Ahmad, 32/129, and
classed and hasan by Shaykh Shu�ayb al-Arna�oot.
(b)
It was narrated that �Adiyy ibn Haatim said: I said, �O Messenger of Allaah, my father used to uphold the ties of kinship, and do
such and such.� He said, �Your father wanted something and got it� meaning, fame.
Narrated by Ahmad (30/200); classed as hasan
by Shaykh Shu�ayb al-Arna�oot, and classed as saheeh by Ibn Hibbaan, 1/41.
(c)
It was narrated from Sahl ibn Sa�d al-Saa�idi that �Adiyy ibn Haatim came to the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of
Allaah be upon him) and said: �O Messenger of Allaah, my father used to uphold the ties of kinship, and spend on the needy, and feed people.� He
said, �Did he live to see Islam?� He said, �No.� He said, �Your father wanted to be remembered.�
Narrated by al-Tabaraani in al-Kabeer,
6/197. Its isnaad includes Rushdeen ibn Sa�d, who is da�eef (weak), but it is supported by the report mentioned above.
The phrase translated above and �spend on the
needy� means spending on the weak, the poor, orphans and dependents, etc.
(d)
It was narrated that Ibn �Umar said: Mention was made of Haatim in the presence of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah
be upon him), and he said, �That is a man who wanted something and got it.�
Al-Haythami said:
This was narrated by al-Bazzaar, and its isnaad includes �Ubayd ibn Waaqid al-�Absi, who was
classed as da�eef by Abu Haatim.
Majma� al-Zawaa�id,
1/119
But it is supported by the reports quoted
above.
Ibn Katheer said:
We have mentioned the biography of Haatim
Tay� in the days of the Jaahiliyyah when we mentioned those who died of the famous people of that era, and we referred to his generosity and
kindness to people. But generosity and kindness must be based on faith if they are to benefit a person in the Hereafter, but he never said one
day, �O Lord, forgive me my sins on the Day of Judgement.�
Al-Bidaayah wa�l-Nihaayah,
5/67.
And Allaah knows best.
(Source: IslamQA)
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Habitually pursuing the odd views of scholars leads to heresy
Question 123594: Assalamu 'alaykum. I've read on this website a quote of Imam al-Awza'i: "Whoever prefers to follow the exceptional rulings of Ulamah (scholars) gets out of the fold of Islam." (from Sunan of Al Baihaq...
Question 123594: Assalamu 'alaykum. I've read on this website a quote of Imam al-Awza'i: "Whoever prefers to follow the exceptional rulings of Ulamah (scholars) gets out of the fold of Islam." (from Sunan of Al Baihaqi, taken from Fatwa No : 86931). On another website I've read something similar, but with slightly different wording: "Whoever holds on to the rare and unusual positions of the scholars has left Islam." (Siyar A'lam al-Nubala by al-Dhahabi). I would like to know what he meant by these statements and what was the context in which he stated this, because it makes sense to me that a scholar should follow a ruling of a previous scholar if he considers it much stronger, even if that ruling is uncommon and rare.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.This statement relates to negligence in religion and the pursuit of concessions made by scholars and in the various schools of Fiqh without guidance and without any legitimate reason other than to escape the religious duties and demolish the building of the religion and to deconstruct the objectives of the Sharee'ah behind the commands and prohibitions. The scholars considered this to be immoral and not lawful to engage in, and Ibn Hazm reported a consensus concerning this. in his book Al-Ihkaam, he cited the following statement of Sulaymaan At-Taymi who said: "If you took the concessions of every scholar, you would collect all evil.""Ibn Taymiyyah cited the following statement of Ibn 'Abd Al-Barr: "I know of no disagreement among the people of knowledge that this type of conduct is forbidden." Katheer ibn 'Abdullaah ibn 'Amr ibn 'Awf Al-Muzani related from his father that his grandfather said: I heard the Messenger of Allaah, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, say: "Indeed I fear three things for my followers after my death." People asked, "What are they, O Messenger of Allaah?" He, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said: "The mistakes of the scholar, the rule of a tyrant and the following of bias."'Umar ibn Al-Khattaab said: "Three things destroy the religion: the mistake of a scholar, the argument of a hypocrite with the Book (the Quran), and judgment of the tyrannical leaders."Ahmad Ibn Hanbal said: "If a man were to act upon the opinion of the scholars of Koofah regarding wine, the opinion of the people of Madeenah regarding singing and the opinion of the people of Makkah regarding Mut'ah (temporary marriage), he would be a dissolute person."Al-Awzaa'i said: "He who acts upon the strange and odd views of the scholars has left the fold of Islam."Az-Zarkashi quoted the following statement from Qaadhi Ismaa'eel: "I once entered the quarters of the Abbasid Caliph Al-Mu'tadhid, and he handed me a book to examine. The book was a compilation of odd rulings and concessions that various scholars had mistakenly arrived at with the evidence those scholars used to support their claims. After examining the book, the Qaadhi Ismaa'eel said to the Caliph: "The author of this book is a heretic � Those who considered wine lawful did not consider temporary marriage lawful and those who considered temporary marriage lawful did not consider wine lawful. There is no scholar who has never made a mistake. Whoever collects these mistakes together and acts upon them loses his religion." [Al-Bahr Al-Muheet]Therefore, it is feared that anyone who habitually pursues religious concessions and scholars' mistakes is being negligent in the religion of Allaah and not sincerely seeking to practice it.However, what you referred at the end of your question does not fall under this. When someone acts on an opinion he considers the most valid, he is thereby abiding by the texts and the teachings and objectives of the religion and it does not involve the pursuit of concessions, even if one believes that the easiest opinion of the scholars is the most valid.Finally, it should be noted that it is permissible to enjoy religious concessions in case of necessity as long as it is not made a habit. The Shaafi'i scholar As-Subki said, "It is permissible for a layman to enjoy the concessions of scholars out of necessity, but without habitually pursuing the religious concessions of the different scholars. It is from this perspective that it is correct to say that the difference (of opinion among the scholars) is a mercy because (in this case) the concessions are a mercy." [Al-'Ibhaaj]Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Hacking anti-Islam websites
Question 124490: Salam alaikum wa rahmatAllah wa barakatuhu, As I often google islamic pictures for my Blog I often see anti-islamic websites, but yesterday I came to a website (http://thereligionofpeace.com/-the poli...
Question 124490: Salam alaikum wa rahmatAllah wa barakatuhu, As I often google islamic pictures for my Blog I often see anti-islamic websites, but yesterday I came to a website (http://thereligionofpeace.com/-the politically incorrect truth about islam one really messed up religion) and it is by far the worst and most slanderous website about Islam and Rasul Allah, sal Allahu alayhi wa salam, that I have ever seen. I got very angry about those lies on that website and sent that link to fellow Muslims and asked if they know someone who can bring it down. I do not know if what I did was ok or maybe haram, but what shocked me even more and made me even more angry was, that only one sister also became upset. All the others reacted relaxed and unconcerned, they did not care and said things like "Allah is the Best Planner" and one should be patient. That is of course correct and I responded also like that but added that this doesn't mean, we should just sit around and do nothing and just watch how disbelievers slander our beloved Prophet, sal Allahu alayhi wa salam, and the religion of Islam. Of course we do not react with violence that endangers innocent, but there has to be another way to stop the lies about Allah Ta'ala and His Messenger, sal Allahu alayhi wa salam. But also this they did not understand, they were not angry and they were not upset and not concerned and none of them participated in my attempt to try to find a way to stop that most evil website from spreading lies. Now my questions: I am against hacking and stealing private information from people but would it be islamically allowed to hack a website to stop it from spreading lies about Islam or did I commit a sin and have to repent? Is it ok for a Muslim to not get upset, angry or displeased in any way when seeing such tremendous slander and is it wrong from my side to become angry and upset? Please guide me. Salam alaikum wa rahmatAllah wa barakatuhu Nuha
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.Indeed, you did well by being angry when the limits of Allaah are violated, and this is Islamically required. This is indeed a sign of one's goodness. Allaah Says (what means): {That [has been commanded], and whoever honors the sacred ordinances of Allaah � it is best for him in the sight of his Lord.} [Quran 22:30] The Prophet (saw) used to get very angry when the limits of Allaah were transgressed. Anas narrated: "I have never seen the Prophet (saw) taking revenge for himself on anything except if the limits of Allaah were transgressed, if one of the limits of Allaah was transgressed, he would be the most angry person for the sake of Allaah." [At-Tabaraani] As regards destroying the existing sites on the Internet that are attacking Islam, defaming it and inventing slanders and lies against it, then this is something required and it is a legitimate and blessed act. However, this matter depends on the advantages and disadvantages resulting from it. Therefore, if it is possible to do so without causing a greater evil, then one should do so. Also, the misconceptions which such sites raise should be refuted by Islamic sites. For more benefit, please refer to Fatwa 87984. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Hacking computer game to win vouchers
Question 106052: There is a food company that offers free vouchers of sandwiches if you are among the top scorers. The game can be hacked, and the hacker can change its source code and thus make it into the top scorer...
Question 106052: There is a food company that offers free vouchers of sandwiches if you are among the top scorers. The game can be hacked, and the hacker can change its source code and thus make it into the top scorer list. If the hacker wins by changing the game mechanics, will these sandwiches be halal for him or not? Please note that no rules and regulations have been defined for playing this game.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.If such hacking violates the terms and conditions of the owners of the game and those who offer the vouchers; then this hacking is not permissible and the hacker does not have the right to take those vouchers because he does not deserve them. Allaah Almighty says (what means): {O you who have believed, do not consume one another's wealth unjustly.} [Quran 4:29]Allaah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Hacking computers to forbid evil
Question 104132: I own an internet cafe. Is it permissible for me to hack the customers� computers so as to hinder them from visiting porn sites? Would this be considered spying on others?
Question 104132: I own an internet cafe. Is it permissible for me to hack the customers� computers so as to hinder them from visiting porn sites? Would this be considered spying on others?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and messenger. Opening an internet cafe is permissible as long as the owner can control it and forbid evildoings that might happen. One cannot do so without putting the customers� computers under a system that controls and monitors their activities. It is well-known that (Islamically) both the means and the ends take the same ruling. Thus, if the end is good then the means to it must also be approved and permitted. Consequently, if the reason behind monitoring what the customers do is lawful, then it is permissible to do it. The most conclusive evidence supporting this fact is that the scholars of Hadeeth used to clarify the character and words of narrators to protect Hadeeth from lies and fabrication. Accordingly, as long as the monitoring and controlling systems in such cafes are intended to forbid customers from evildoing, then it is obligatory upon the owner of the cafe to use them in order to hinder the occurrence of evil. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Hacking wifi service to avoid paying its fees
Question 106134: Assalaamu alaykum. My college provides wifi with a fee, but I hacked my college wifi and used about 10 MB. Now I regret this; how can I repay for it? Please help me; what should I do?
Question 106134: Assalaamu alaykum. My college provides wifi with a fee, but I hacked my college wifi and used about 10 MB. Now I regret this; how can I repay for it? Please help me; what should I do?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah and that Muhammad, sallallaahu ʻalayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.Firstly, you are obliged to repent to Allaah for what you have done; please refer to fatwa 86527 about the conditions of sincere repentance.Then you have to pay the fees of the wifi service that you used to the concerned college officials or ask that they pardon you. If they pardoned you and waived their rights, then this clears you of your liability and you are then no longer obliged to pay them anything.Allaah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had a Bank Loan
Question 117100: 1 year back I took a loan from a bank here to cover some urgent commitment at that time. Now as I still have 2 years to pay for the loan I regret the decision and read about Riba and how both the bank...
Question 117100: 1 year back I took a loan from a bank here to cover some urgent commitment at that time. Now as I still have 2 years to pay for the loan I regret the decision and read about Riba and how both the bank and I are equally mistaken. According to my reading, I know that the lender should give the extra amount of money paid for interest to Islamic affairs or poor people, but now for me as I am the one who got the loan; how can I get out of this mistake knowing that I do not have money to pay the whole loan now?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.
As a rule, dear brother, it is prohibited to deal with a usury-taking bank. Allah Says (what means): {O you who believe! Be afraid of Allah and give up what remains (due to you) from Riba (usury and interest)(from now onward), if you are (really) believers}. [ Quran 2:278]
Besides, Jaabir narrated that the Prophet (saw) said "Allah has cursed the one who consumes Riba (i.e. usury or interest), the one who gives it to others, the one who records it and the one who witnesses it (its transaction)." He (saw) added: "All of them are equal in sin." [Muslim]
If you have deposited your money in a usury-taking bank, then you have to withdraw it and then give the interest to the needy Muslims or in charity. If you have borrowed from the bank, you have to pay the capital only. But if you are forced to pay the interest along with the capital, then Allah will forgive you, Allah willing. If you are not able to pay the debt, pay the installments and turn towards Allah in repentance and be determined not to return to this again.
Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had a car accident after assuming Ihraam for �??Umrah
Question 113892: One wearing Ihraam in Jeddah and not performing Umrah due to car accident is there any rules imposed on the person...like sacrifice a goat...etc
Question 113892: One wearing Ihraam in Jeddah and not performing Umrah due to car accident is there any rules imposed on the person...like sacrifice a goat...etc
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. If this man had laid a condition when he assumed Ihraam, by saying for instance: "O Allaah! I would be free from the state of Ihraam if you attain me (i.e. if I am prevented from continuing the rituals of Umrah)", then in this case he is permitted to take off his Ihraam and he is not required to do anything.However, if he (the injured person) had not laid a condition, and he is able to persevere, with the hope of completing his 'Umrah after he is cured, then he should be patient until he becomes cured and then perform 'Umrah, because Allaah ordered us to complete the ritual; Allaah Says (what means): {And complete the Hajj and 'Umrah for Allaah.}[Quran 2:196]In case he is unable to complete the 'Umrah, then he takes the rule of someone who is prevented (from completing the rituals); Allaah Says (what means): {But if you are prevented, then [offer] what can be obtained with ease of sacrificial animals. And do not shave your heads until the sacrificial animal has reached its place of slaughter.}[Quran 2:196] So, he should offer a sacrifice and then shave or trim his head, and then take off his Ihraam (comes out of the state of Ihraam). However, he should not wear form-fitted clothes before he shaves and offers a Hadyy. To offer a Hady means to offer a sacrifice in the place where he was prevented from completing the rituals, whether he is inside or outside the boundaries of the Haram [Makkah], and he should give it to the poor in the place where he is. If he cannot find anyone to give the sacrifice to, then it should be transferred to those who live in the surroundings of Makkah, or to the poor of some villages (around Makkah), and then he should shave or trim his hair and come out of the state of Ihraam. If he is unable to offer a sacrifice, then some scholars stated that he should fast 10 days and then he should shave or trim his hair and come out of the state of Ihraam. Nevertheless, some other scholars stated that if he is unable to offer a sacrifice, he may come out of the state of Ihraam and he is not required to do anything. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had a Child from Fornication and Married Another Man Later
Question 117330: A divorced muslim women has comitted fornication in Hungary after few years of divorce. She has a baby daugther from the same. After knowing the same, a muslim man has married to her to bring back her...
Question 117330: A divorced muslim women has comitted fornication in Hungary after few years of divorce. She has a baby daugther from the same. After knowing the same, a muslim man has married to her to bring back her and the innocent baby daughter to Islamic living with Taqwa and Taharath. The Nikah was done with an unknow Imam (witness 1) and the friend of Man (Witness 2).. the women was inside a room where in front of the bridegroom, the bride gave her accord to Nikah and accepted the proposed mehr. Is this Nikah Valid?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. This woman is obliged to repent to Allah from this abominable act, which is an immorality and evil as a way, as described by Allah in His Book. This daughter should be traced back to her, according to the view of the majority of the jurists, and may not be attributed to the adulterer or someone else. However, some jurists are of the view that if the adulterer traces this daughter back to him, then she can be traced back to him. The view that we adopt here in Islamweb however is the view of the majority of the jurists. The presence (or consent) of the guardian is a condition for the validity of the marriage, according to the view of the majority of the scholars, which is the view we consider to be the preponderant one. It is not valid that this woman marries herself off by her own self. However, Imam Abu Haneefah held the view that such a marriage is valid. In order to be on the safe side, it is better to renew the contract with the permission of her guardian, or whoever her guardian entrusts to this effect. This is of course, if she has a Muslim guardian. If she does not have a Muslim guardian, then she appoints a righteous Muslim man (to marry her off). Ibn Qudaamah said: "If a Muslim woman does not have a Muslim guardian or a Muslim ruler, then one of the narrations from Ahmad indicates that a trustworthy Muslim man marries her off with her permission." For more benefit, please refer to Fataawa 329428, 269080, 143587 and 194075. Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had a curable illness but broke fast and offered expiation and did not make up for it
Question 112600: Three years ago, I underwent surgery to change a valve in my heart. In that year, the doctor who conducted the surgery said to me, "Do not fast, and feed a needy person for every day." I, praise be to...
Question 112600: Three years ago, I underwent surgery to change a valve in my heart. In that year, the doctor who conducted the surgery said to me, "Do not fast, and feed a needy person for every day." I, praise be to Allah, gave food to brake the fast to a fasting person for each day. I, praise be to Allah, did fast the following years. Should I make up for that month or not?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the worlds. I testify that none is worthy of worship except Allah and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and messenger.Before answering your question, we draw your attention to the fact that Sharee�ah rulings are not taken from doctors; rather, they are taken from the people of knowledge and the carriers of the Sharee�ah, who are the inheritors of the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, in conveying the religion to his nation. Doctors are asked about the condition of the illness and whether fasting harms the patient or not. Moreover, we would like to gently blame you. Our intention is compassion and keenness on your interest; what made you wait for three years without asking about what you should do sufficing with the statement of the doctor who has no authority to give a Fatwa?Now that you have asked, know that it is obligatory on you to make up for the days that you missed because you had an illness that was hoped to be cured. Allah Almighty says (what means): {So whoever among you is ill or on a journey [during them] � then an equal number of days [are to be made up].} [Quran 2: 184] Besides making up for those days, you must feed a needy person one mudd (0.75L in volume) of food for each day for having delayed making up for them. This is the opinion of the majority of the scholars, contrary to Abu Hanifah . The evidence of the majority is the Fatwa of Abu Hurairah, Ibn 'Abbaas and Ibn 'Umar. We do not know of a Companion who said the opposite.Your previous feeding of the needy does not avail you because at the time of feeding them, you had not yet delayed making up for them. Thus, feeding was not yet obligatory on you. An act of worship may not be done before it becomes due in one�s liability.Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had a different name while living in a non-Muslim country
Question 120305: asalaamu calaykum, i have here a question....... and my question is : i dont live in my home country and a live in a country which is not an islamic country so that the name i have here is different m...
Question 120305: asalaamu calaykum, i have here a question....... and my question is : i dont live in my home country and a live in a country which is not an islamic country so that the name i have here is different my real nam. i made this mistake when i came in this country becouse of afraid to meet problem , and now if i try to change it to my original name i am afraid also to meet problem so that what is the point of view according to our islamic religion although i like to recorrect my mistake the suitable time and what iam what the money which i will receive with this name. so please i hope you will answer to my question inshaa alaah . asalaaamu calaykum....................
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. In principle, changing one�s name to a better one is allowed as proven in the practice of the Prophet (saw) . The who fears for his life if he keeps his original name may also change his name, provided that changing his name does not harm other people. The money one gets after having a new name is not forbidden as long as he gains it through lawful means.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had a dream about working in an interest-based company
Question 107731: AfterI pray Istikhaarah many times for "work in bank or investment company" I get offer in the same day and I greed both by sign but I stare to work in investment company and the bank agree my request...
Question 107731: AfterI pray Istikhaarah many times for "work in bank or investment company" I get offer in the same day and I greed both by sign but I stare to work in investment company and the bank agree my request I will start to work after two months, I pray Istikhaarah I dreamt company where I am working "investment company" I was standing outside the door of reception carry without sound but with breath I need help but I can't see anyone to open form door for ask for position the door I was open without using card or help of anyone I enter and I was very surprise to see the company same place but it is very big and lot largest space with lot of trees with colors and water I can't see the end of company I was surprise to wonderful and nature things I was only a man taught at me and tell me are looking for finance manager you want position and show me his office when enter in his office he was very busy but his office without any trees but is large room he didn't bother of me he went out and life me only in the office I open the window because the room was little dark and I start to read the documents which were on the table and wakeup.
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. We ask Allaah to exalt his mention as well as that of his family and all his companions.We do not interpret dreams but the general rulings concerning dreams are mentioned in our Fataawa: 88262 and 87733. Working in any interest-based bank or company is forbidden as we mentioned in our Fataawa: 81944 and 85318.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had a mental disease after he had hurted his neighbours severely
Question 107272: Assalamu alaikum wa rahmatullahi wa barkatoo.I have done a serious sin 15 years back hurting my nabours severly(trying to sexually assault thier daughter) and they prayed against me that time, at that...
Question 107272: Assalamu alaikum wa rahmatullahi wa barkatoo.I have done a serious sin 15 years back hurting my nabours severly(trying to sexually assault thier daughter) and they prayed against me that time, at that instance i not accepted the crime with them denying i am not a culprict. time has passed but Allah involved with a strange Mental diseas for which i am trying to cure it by medication, which i am not suceeding with, even i prayed lot cryed lot and performed umrah and hajj.I am seriously suffering in my daily life now. . I am ready to do any thing Inshallah to make Allah happy and forgive my sins .The only thing is i cant pledge my apology before the nebours because of some reaons.Pls Guide me.JAZAKUMULLA
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. First of all, we ask Allaah to cure you from this disease a cure that leaves no sickness, and we ask Him to forgive your sins and be pleased with you. We hope that what happened will be a lesson for you so that you will benefit from it in your worldly and religious matters. You should first take the initiative to repent for trying to sexually assault that girl, and secondly, to repent for lying. For more benefit on the conditions of sincere repentance, please refer to Fataawa 87903, 86527 and 88108.Therefore, it becomes clear to you that if the sin is between you and another person, you should first seek his/her forgiveness. Hence, you should seek the forgiveness of that girl and her family from what you have done but you should not tell them what you did; rather, you should ask them to forgive you in general. However, if you fear that this will cause a greater harm to you, then after repenting, you should supplicate Allaah for them and seek the Forgiveness of Allaah for them. Also, you should perform good deeds as much as possible and avoid any means that could lead you to committing such a sin or any other sin again.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had a previous scam marriage
Question 120978: I am getting married soon, Inshaa' Allaah, to a pious and chaste sister in my home country, which is Muslim. I happen to have lived in one of the western countries and back then I was not a good Musli...
Question 120978: I am getting married soon, Inshaa' Allaah, to a pious and chaste sister in my home country, which is Muslim. I happen to have lived in one of the western countries and back then I was not a good Muslim. I have done many sins and Al-Hamdulillaah I have repented from all of them and I regret having committed them. May Allah forgive me. One of these sins was fornication. I use to have a couple of girlfriends one of which accepted to marry me so I could get my residency. So I married her with the intention that it was just a scam. The marriage lacked the requirements of an Islamic marriage: Wali, Mahr, qualified witnesses, etc. Although we broke up and each one of us found a new partner, she stayed married to me because my case was not over with the immigration services. After things went through with this later, we divorced. I have two questions I hope you could answer:1) When filling the forms for this coming marriage should I let them know that I was previously married and divorced; knowing that if I do so I have to go through so much bureaucracy, including translations of marriage and divorce certificates....etc., all of which cost time, money, and stress.2) If my bride asks me if I ever committed fornication or if I was married in the past, should I tell her the truth or could I lie to her, with the intention of not hurting her feeling.
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. We ask Allaah to exalt his mention as well as that of his family and all his companions. You have to know that your marriage to that woman was nothing but fornication as it did not meet the conditions of a correct marriage. However, you did well by repenting. Even if we suppose that your marriage to that woman was correct and fulfilled the conditions of a correct marriage, you do not have to inform this woman whom you want to marry that you were already married before. So why would you tell her since it was not a correct marriage? It is an obligation for whoever has committed adultery or fornication to conceal his sin and not inform anyone about it. The Prophet (saw) said: "Avoid this filthy thing [fornication and/or adultery] that Allaah has forbidden, and whoever has committed it has to conceal himself." [Al-Bayhaqi] Even if we suppose that the woman you propose to for marriage or any other person asks you about it, you can use Tawriyah (saying something which has more than one meaning and intending a meaning different from what the listener is likely to understand). For instance, you can tell her that you were not married before, intending to mean that you were not married in correct marriage before, and you can tell her I did not commit fornication, meaning that you did not commit fornication after having repented. So a Muslim uses this method of Tawriyah when needed. Finally, it should be noted that in order to be grateful and thankful to your Lord for the blessing or repentance, you should avoid any means that could lead you to committing fornication or adultery again. Allaah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had a sinful relation and repented
Question 107719: I did a very bad thing it was so worse I can't believe I did it. I had a relation with a guy for two years and in these two years I had done a very bad thing. I used to talk about sex and then it happ...
Question 107719: I did a very bad thing it was so worse I can't believe I did it. I had a relation with a guy for two years and in these two years I had done a very bad thing. I used to talk about sex and then it happened that I nearly had sex but it didn't happen completely. Then I started cyber on webcam and now I have finished things with him. I feel so bad that indulged myself into this disgusting thing and I hate myself I don't know what to do. If I marry the guy whose going to be my husband what will I do? I feel bad and sad and I feel my self esteem going down. I need help.
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. We ask Allaah to exalt his mention as well as that of his family and all his companions. Indeed you did well by stopping this relationship with this man and stopping committing other obnoxious acts. Regretting the acts that you committed is a good thing. This should lead you to sincerely repent to Allaah while being determined not to do that again. So you should be careful of any means that could lead you to do those acts again. You should not tolerate being in seclusion with men, or be in forbidden mixing and so forth. We advise you to keep company with righteous women and be careful of keeping company with dissolute ones. You have to know that Allaah is Most-Merciful, Most Gracious, and He Forgives all kinds of sins [except Shirk: associating partners to Him]. So you should take it easy and do not submit yourself to the whispers of the devil who could make you despair of Allaah's Mercy. Allaah Says (which means): {Say, "O My servants who have transgressed against themselves [by sinning] do not despair of the mercy of Allaah. Indeed, Allaah forgives all sins. Indeed, it is He who is the Forgiving, the Merciful."}[Quran 39:53]. So you should aspire for good and perform righteous deeds in the future. As regards marrying, this is something that you should be keen on. It is Islamicly permissible for a woman to look for a husband or to propose herself to men who is looking to marry, provided good morals and Islamic etiquettes are met. If someone proposes to marry you, you are not obliged to inform him about the abominable acts that you did, and it is not permissible for you to inform him as Islam encourages people to conceal their sins. It is confirmed that the Prophet (saw) said: "Allaah has forgiven for all my nation except those who openly expose their sins." [Al-Bukhari and Muslim] Even if we suppose that the man who proposes to marry you asks you if you had committed some of these sins, then you may use Tawriyah (saying something which has more than one meaning and intending a meaning different from what the listener is likely to understand), like saying "I have not committed any of these sins"; meaning after you have repented. For more benefit, please refer to Fataawa 90186, 88652 and 89541. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had a wet dream about 2 men having sex
Question 108329: I had a wet dream recently.The strange thing about it is I was not in the dream and the characters were two men having sex.I was like somebody watching the scene and I ejaculated.Why is this?I don't w...
Question 108329: I had a wet dream recently.The strange thing about it is I was not in the dream and the characters were two men having sex.I was like somebody watching the scene and I ejaculated.Why is this?I don't want to be a homosexual.Please help me and give me some good advice.
Answer: Praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all his Family and Companions.There is no blame on you since such a thing took place while sleeping. A dream might be from the Devil to sadden a believer. So, a Muslim is required to seek refuge with Allah from the Devil and then to spit on his left side thrice. Also, one should not tell such a dream to others.The Prophet (Sallallahu Alaihi wa Sallam) said: "If one of you sees something (in a dream) that he dislikes him, seek the protection of Allah from it, evil and from Devil, let him spit (like blowing) to his left three times and let him change over from the side on which he was." If one sees such abominable things, this does not mean that he will among those who do such bad deeds.Thus, do not worry! It will be enough to hate such misdeeds and their followers as well as to warn other against them.Many T.V. channels broadcast such dissolute things. We pray to Allah, the Exalted, to protect all of us.Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had a Wet Dream in Ramadan and Fajr Started and Was Afraid to Perform Ghusl As It Is Cold
Question 108704: Assalamualaikum! My question is. During the month of Ramadan, then i did a dream in the night( about 4:00AM close to the end of FIJR and sperm come out), but I'm afraid to take a bath(since i got in j...
Question 108704: Assalamualaikum! My question is. During the month of Ramadan, then i did a dream in the night( about 4:00AM close to the end of FIJR and sperm come out), but I'm afraid to take a bath(since i got in janab) because we are in a cold season . So now that we are going out of the time what will i do. That's my question thanks to you.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. As for fasting, whoever wakes up after the time of Fajr has started while he is in the state of Janaabah (sexual defilement), then he fasts and there is no blame on him for that. The evidence for the above mentioned ruling is the Hadeeth narrated by 'Aa�ishah and Umm Salamah that "The Prophet (saw) would rise in the morning on a fasting day while he is sexually defiled and then he would perform Ghusl (a ritual bath) and fast." [Al-Bukhari and Muslim] Imam Muslim added "And he does not make up that day."As for the prayer, it is obligatory to perform Ghusl for prayer. If the water is cold, then you should heat it up and perform Ghusl, and it is not permissible for you to opt for Tayammum (dry ablution) instead of Ghusl in this case. If you do not find anything with which to heat the water and you are afraid that you will get sick if you performed Ghusl with cold water, and you are unable to perform Ghusl with water in a way that does not harm you, then in this case there is no harm on you to perform Tayammum. Therefore, perform Tayammum and pray, and then you perform Ghusl to remove the state of Janaabah after that whenever you are able to perform Ghusl with water for the Hadeeth that reads: "Earth (soil) is a means of ablution for a Muslim, even if he does not find water for ten years; but when he finds water, he should fear Allah and make it touch his skin." [Al-Baz-Zaar; Al-Albaani: Saheeh] After performing Ghusl, you are not obliged to repeat the prayer that you had prayed with Tayammum. Ibn Qudaamah said in Al-Mughni: "If one fears extreme cold and he can heat the water or use it in a manner that protects him from harm � like washing the body parts (that should be washed in ablution) one after the other and once he washes an organ, he covers it � then he is obliged to do so. If he is unable to do so, then, according to the view of most scholars, he may perform Tayammum and pray. Moreover, Abu Daawood and Abu Bakr al-Khallaal reported in a chain of narration to 'Amr ibn al-'Aas, who said: "I had a wet dream on a cold night in the battle of Dhat as-Salaasil. I was afraid, that if I performed Ghusl I would die. I, therefore, performed Tayammum and led my Companions in the Fajr prayer. They mentioned that to the Prophet (saw) who said: "O 'Amr, you led your Companions in prayer while you were sexually defiled?" I informed him of the cause which impeded me from performing Ghusl. And I said: 'I heard that Allah says: "Do not kill yourselves, verily Allah is Merciful to you". The Prophet (saw) laughed and did not say anything." The fact that the Prophet (saw) kept silent indicates that it is permissible, because he does not approve an error; and because the person was afraid for himself [his life], so he was permitted to perform Tayammum like a wounded person or a sick one. Now, if one performed Tayammum and prayed, is he obliged to make up his prayer? There are two narrations about this: one narration stipulates that he does not need to repeat the prayer; this is the view of Ath-Thawri, Maalik, Abu Haneefah, and Ibn al-Munthir, for the Hadeeth of 'Amr as the Prophet (saw) did not order him to repeat the prayer. Had it been an obligation to repeat the prayer, the Prophet (saw) would have ordered him to repeat it. 'Amr was afraid for himself, so he was like a sick person, and he did what he was ordered to do [acted according to the verse]; so he was like everyone else who prays with Tayammum. The second view stipulates that he is obliged to repeat the prayer; this is the view of Abu Yusuf and Muhammad, because it is a rare excuse and not continuous, and does not prevent from performing again the prayer, like forgetting to perform Tahaarah (purity). The first view is the most correct opinion." [End of quote] For more benefit on performing Ghusl in cold weather, please refer to Fataawa 414181, 45925, 83735 and 91467. For more benefit on performing Tayammum for major impurity, please refer to Fataawa 241396, 357823, 357823 and 92216.Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had an Abortion and Seeks Forgiveness
Question 124940: I had an abortion during the end of the 3rd month of pregnancy and I want to know what I can do to have Allah forgive me.
Question 124940: I had an abortion during the end of the 3rd month of pregnancy and I want to know what I can do to have Allah forgive me.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger.
You are obliged to repent and seek forgiveness for what you did, because you have wrongly committed an aggression against a creation of Allah. The jurists are unanimous that whoever aborts a fetus should give a young male or female slave as blood money to the guardian of the fetus. The evidence is that Abu Hurayrah narrated that "Two women from Huthayl fought with each other. One of them threw a rock at her opponent and thereby killed her and her fetus. The case was brought before the Messenger of Allah, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, and he ruled that the blood money for the killed fetus is a young male or female slave." [Al-Bukhari and Muslim]
The scholars said, "In case no young male or female slave is found, the value of that, which is 1/10 of the blood money of the mother should be paid." The scholars also agree that this designated blood money should be paid in the case of an aborted fetus whose limbs started to take human shape, because, in that state, it is known that it is becoming a human being. However, they differed on the ruling if the abortion happened before the fetus had started forming limbs. The preponderant opinion in our view is that whenever the fetus has passed the stage of Nutfah (mixed drops of the male and female discharge) �which means having passed the first forty days and entered the second forty days �the stipulated blood money should be paid if it is aborted regardless of whether it has become a clot, a lump of flesh or any other thing. This is because, the formation of the parts of the body starts at the beginning of the second forty days of the life of the fetus. The evidence for this is that the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said: "When 42 nights pass over the creation of a Nutfah, Allah Sends an angel to it, who gives it form, and creates its ears, eyes, skin, flesh and bones �" [Muslim]
Since the formation of the fetus is hidden and the science of recognizing that was unknown to the people of the past, then those who considered the formation of the limbs as a condition for imposing the blood money among the early scholars did not rely on that science to determine the beginning of the formation of man. But nowadays, modern equipment (like the ultrasound machine) does confirm that formation starts in the stage mentioned by the above quoted Prophetic narration. Since it is known when human formation begins (i.e. the start of the second forty days of the formation of the fetus), then in our view, the preponderant opinion is the ruling that blood money becomes obligatory on anybody who aborts a pregnancy at that stage.
To conclude, you committed a sin that makes it obligatory on you to pay the blood money, which is a young male or female slave or the value of that, because the abortion took place after the second forty days.
Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had an erection but found no wetness
Question 109734: I have a little problem where I get excited easily, Al-Hamdu lillaah I try not to ever raise my gaze or stay in a female environment, but I was out of town with my family at my cousin's house I am 16....
Question 109734: I have a little problem where I get excited easily, Al-Hamdu lillaah I try not to ever raise my gaze or stay in a female environment, but I was out of town with my family at my cousin's house I am 16. I had already taken a bath, and I was playing with my cousin's husband, a video game. I got excited because of the woman there, my cousin, and had an erection, i could feel my private move, and I thought maybe I ejaculated, because I felt my private move. I did not feel any wetness, and when the bathroom was empty 10 minutes later, I checked my private and I did not see any wetness on it or any indication that something came out. I am not making up my prayers as a result, because I do not remember feeling any wetness or seeing anything, am I making the right choice? I get doubts that maybe I ejaculated because I felt it, if you feel it and nothing comes out, you do not make up the prayers right?
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. We ask Allaah to exalt his mention as well as that of his family and all his companions. First of all, we thank you for lowering your gaze and not mixing with marriageable women. We ask Allaah to provide you more from His Favours and Bounties. You have to know that your cousin is also a marriageable woman to you so you have to treat her as other marriageable women.As regards your question, your prayer is acceptable Inshaa' Allaah, and you are not required to make it up since there was no ejaculation. Being sexually incited or having an erection does not necessitate Ghusl (a ritual bath).Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had English legal wedding but no Islamic wedding
Question 121763: My Tunisian husband came to this country and we had to get a legal English wedding in the registry office to get his visa. After I became a proper Muslim, i.e. took my Shahadha I asked my husband for ...
Question 121763: My Tunisian husband came to this country and we had to get a legal English wedding in the registry office to get his visa. After I became a proper Muslim, i.e. took my Shahadha I asked my husband for an Islamic wedding. He said he won't have one as his brother came to the English registry office. He says he doesn't need one and that an Islamic wedding is a waste of time. I think that even though we are married in English law we are not married in Islamic law and as such I am committing sin by sleeping with him. Please advise, very concerned.
Answer:
Praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all his Family and Companions. If the marriage contract you concluded met the Islamic conditions of validity that should be present in any such contract, then, there is no need to do the contract again. But if it did not meet these conditions, then it should be done again and it is unlawful for you to let him have intimate contacts with you until the contract is redone. For details about conditions that should be fulfilled in any marriage contract, please read Fatawa:81385, 82072 and 83629. Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had her tubes tied before embracing Islam and wants to have children
Question 120581: New Muslimah was wondering what is the ruling on having had my tubes tied and unable to produce any more children. Had this procedure done before converting? Now I feel bad that I can not give my husb...
Question 120581: New Muslimah was wondering what is the ruling on having had my tubes tied and unable to produce any more children. Had this procedure done before converting? Now I feel bad that I can not give my husband anymore children like he wants.
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. We ask Allaah to exalt his mention as well as that of his family and all his companions. First of all, all perfect praise be to Allaah who guided you to Islam, and this blessing requires you to be steadfast on acts of obedience to Allaah, seek religious knowledge and keep company with righteous women. We ask Allaah to make us firm on this religion until the day we meet Him. You should know that it is forbidden in Islam to carry out a permanent birth control [completely prevent childbearing] except for a necessity, as this contradicts one of the most important objectives of Islam in multiplying the progeny, because this strengthens the nation and makes it victorious, Allaah willing. However, since you did so before you became a Muslim, then Islam wipes out your previous sins. Allaah Says (what means): {Say to those who have disbelieved [that] if they cease, what has previously occurred will be forgiven for them.}[Quran 8:38]. Moreover, it is confirmed that the Prophet (saw) told 'Amr Ibn Al-'Aas : "Did you not know that Islam wipes out previous sins." [Muslim]Therefore, there is no harm in consulting the trustworthy and experienced doctors in the field as Allaah might bless you with some good, thanks to them, and nothing is hard or difficult for Allaah. However, if the doctors see that there is a possibility for you to get pregnant again, it is not permissible for you to use the means by which you would reveal your 'Awrah (parts of the body that must be covered in Islam) unless it is a necessity for the treatment. In this regard a woman doctor should be in priority over a male doctor, and a Muslim female doctor comes in priority over a non-Muslim female doctor. Al-'Izz Ibn 'Abdus-Salaam said: 'It is an obligation to cover one's 'Awrah �but it is permissible to reveal it for a necessity and a dire need, such as doctors looking at the woman for the necessity of treatment.'Besides, we advise you to expect good from Allaah and not despair from His Mercy, as He may bless whomever He wants with children after availing of all material means. Indeed He blessed Zakariyaa (Zachariah) with Yahyaa (John), may Allaah exalt their mention, while his wife was barren and he was very advanced in age. Allaah Says (what means): {He said, "My Lord, how will I have a boy when I have reached old age and my wife is barren?" He [the angel] said, "Such is Allaah; He does what he wills."}[Quran 3:40]. If this is the case with a barren woman and when all material means are non-existing, so what about when some of these means are available [like your case]? So you should invoke Allaah earnestly and choose the best time when your supplication is most likely to be answered, like supplicating when in prostration, in the last third of the night and so forth. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had Intercourse and Took a Shower without Intending Ghusl
Question 108737: Do you have to do gusul after you have had intercouse with your husband 2 days ago. In those two days you have showered normally. Do you still have to do gusul or is wuhdu just enough?
Question 108737: Do you have to do gusul after you have had intercouse with your husband 2 days ago. In those two days you have showered normally. Do you still have to do gusul or is wuhdu just enough?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad, (saw) is His slave and Messenger. It is incumbent on a person in a state of Janaabah (major ritual impurity) due to sexual intercourse or other reasons to wash his whole body with water with the intention of removing the ritual impurity. This is the prescribed Ghusl (ritual bath) for Janaabah. The normal bathing in which one uses soap and water (to clean the body) without the intention of removing the ritual impurity, is not sufficient in terms of clearing one’s liability from the obligation of performing Ghusl for Janaabah and removing the ritual impurity. His prayers afterward would be invalid until he washes his body with water with the intention of performing Ghusl for Janaabah. However, if a person washes his body with soap and then pours water over it with the intention of performing Ghusl for Janaabah with that water, then his Ghusl is valid. The following question was posed to the Permanent Committee for Iftaa’: Can soap be used in the Ghusl for Janaabah, and why?The Committee’s answer was as follows: “It is obligatory to perform Ghusl for Janaabah with water, and it is not required to use cleaning products such as soap and the like. This is what the reported Sunnah of the Prophet (saw) indicated. If soap or similar cleaning products are used, then there is nothing wrong with that.” [End of quote from Fataawa Al-Lajnah Ad-Daa’imah]Allah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had intercourse during her menses and got pregnant in the same month
Question 120369: assalamu alaikum i m a married woman...we did a grave sin by having intercourse during menses...but later we repented and vowed never to such a thing again..but i got pregnant dat month..and now i m a...
Question 120369: assalamu alaikum i m a married woman...we did a grave sin by having intercourse during menses...but later we repented and vowed never to such a thing again..but i got pregnant dat month..and now i m afraid will dat hav any bad effect on my child.....i mean...i want my child to be pious n healthy...pls advice me...
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. There is no doubt that having intercourse with one's wife during menses is forbidden as Allaah Says (what means): {And they ask you about menstruation. Say, "It is harm, so keep away from wives during menstruation. And do not approach them until they are pure. And when they have purified themselves, then come to them from where Allaah has ordained for you.}[Quran 2:222]. Therefore, whoever has committed this sin, he should sincerely repent to Allaah in addition to being obliged to expiate for it. For more benefit, please refer to Fatwa 84636. As regards becoming pregnant in that month, and fearing about the child, then there is no need to worry about this because a woman cannot become pregnant from intercourse which took place during menses, as the doctors say. What is required is to endeavour to cultivate the child according to Islamic principles, and in this way the child will become righteous, Allaah willing. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had intercourse thinking that it was not dawn yet
Question 112886: We had intercourse and the call for Al-Fajr prayer was made but we did not realize it until five minutes after the Athaan. Is our fasting invalidated?
Question 112886: We had intercourse and the call for Al-Fajr prayer was made but we did not realize it until five minutes after the Athaan. Is our fasting invalidated?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.If intercourse takes place before the Athaan (call for prayer) and ends before it, then there is no problem and the fasting is valid. In the case that intercourse takes place during the Athaan and he knows of it, then he does not have to make up (the fast) nor offer expiation if he withdraws immediately (i.e., terminates the intercourse). If he continues, it is due upon him to make up the fast (for this day) and offer expiation. If this occurs after the Athaan while thinking that it has yet to come and he then finds that it was after the Athaan and the time of prayer, then the fasting is invalid and both of them should make up for this day. Expiation is due upon him if he continues after knowing that the call for Al-Fajr prayer was made because he violated the sanctity of this month by continuing. So, along with making it up, he should also offer expiation. If he stopped upon knowing that the Athaan passed, he does not have to offer expiation but he should make up for this day as mentioned above. The woman is like the man in all these cases if she does it willingly.An-Nawawi said, "If dawn rises while one is having intercourse with his wife and he comes to know but continues having intercourse, his fast is invalidated with no difference of opinion among scholars." He said, "There is no known difference among scholars concerning this matter. He should offer expiation according to this school of Fiqh (i.e., the Shaafi'i school)."An-Nawawi also said about the issue of the one who engages in intercourse while thinking that dawn has not yet risen but found the opposite to be true: "If he eats, drinks or engages in intercourse while thinking that the sun has set or that the dawn had not yet broken but then the opposite was discovered, then we have already mentioned that he should make up for this�. This is the opinion adopted by Abu Haneefah, Maalik, Ahmad, Abu Thawr and the majority of the scholars ."Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had intercourse without proper marriage
Question 120526: Asalam O AlaikumIm a girl from karachi, pakistan and iam in sever tension. i will be really greatful if you kindly consider my request and reply me as soon as possible. Once me and my cousin were alon...
Question 120526: Asalam O AlaikumIm a girl from karachi, pakistan and iam in sever tension. i will be really greatful if you kindly consider my request and reply me as soon as possible. Once me and my cousin were alone in the house. he wants to marry me. we wanted me physically and i denied so he said that we can get married in the room. so he asked me three times that do i accept him as my husband and i said yes and then he said that we are now husband and wife and we had intrcourse.but my mind is not satisfied. he said that in a book HISTORY OF ISLAMIC JUDICIAL it says that nikkah in such circumstances when a couple is about too committ a sin then they can do the nikkah themselves. is this true ??? he even said that he consulted some Mufti and he said that its proper nikkah.my parents want me to marry some where else. kindly tell me, that nikkah took place or not ??? and if that nikkah took place and i don't want that so will that guy has to divorce me ????Please help me. im in great tension. please tell me what islam and Quran says about this ??? i will b very greatful , kindly reply me as soon as possible. waiting for your reply, desperatelyRegards and wishesA Girl
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. We ask Allaah to exalt his mention as well as that of his family and all his companions. What you did is nothing but Zina (fornication) in which a man and a woman both agree to satisfy their desires secretly.A valid marriage should meet some conditions such as getting married with the consent of guardian, the presence of two witnesses, fixing bridal money and it should be in public. See Fataawa: 83629 and 81385.So, you should sincerely repent from this grave sin. You may marry any religious man after repentance. Moreover, you should conceal your sin and should not inform any one about it before or after marriage as we mentioned in Fatwa: 83058.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had Lustful Thoughts and Doubts about Purity
Question 110099: I had lusty thoughts for 1-2 mint in washroom then while washing hands after peeing I thought I felt a drop come out. Not sure if it's real or not and clothes were a little wet so cant be certain. Plz...
Question 110099: I had lusty thoughts for 1-2 mint in washroom then while washing hands after peeing I thought I felt a drop come out. Not sure if it's real or not and clothes were a little wet so cant be certain. Plz inform me about the fatwa.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.These are nothing but whispers. As long as you are not certain, a certainty upon which you can swear, that you have discharged something, then just ignore all this and do not pay any attention to it. You have to act according to the principle that you are on the state of purity.For more benefit on whispers about purity and how to treat them, please refer to Fatawa 92050 and 92641.Allah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had Menses on Her Way for �??Umrah
Question 108801: Assalamualaikum brother, we planned for umrah and then go to Jeddah after umrah but since my sister got her menses we decided that whole family will perform umrah except her and as we are going to Jed...
Question 108801: Assalamualaikum brother, we planned for umrah and then go to Jeddah after umrah but since my sister got her menses we decided that whole family will perform umrah except her and as we are going to Jeddah in our cousins home and she can make niyyah for umrah from my cousins home in Jeddah and do umrah. Will this be correct if she makes niyyah from my cousins home in Jeddah or is it compulsory to go to masjid Al taneem. Please help me find my answer quickly.. I am really in need of this answer.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.As long as your sister came while intending to perform 'Umrah, then she is not allowed to pass the Meeqaat without assuming the state of Ihraam.The fact that she has menses does not prevent her from assuming the state of Ihraam for 'Umrah. However, it is allowed for her to remain in Jeddah until she becomes pure and then she can perform Ghusl (ritual bath) and go to perform 'Umrah.If she had passed the Meeqaat without assuming the state of Ihraam, but can return to it and assume the state of Ihraam from the Meeqaat once she finishes her menses, then this is acceptable.However, if she had assumed the state of Ihraam from Jeddah, then she is obliged to offer a sacrifice because of passing the Meeqaat without assuming the state of Ihraam.Jeddah is not a place of Meeqaat for the one who comes to it from outside, according to the most preponderant opinion, such as someone who comes from Riyadh for example. However, the residents of Jeddah can assume their Ihraam for their ritual from Jeddah.For more benefit, please refer to Fataawa 369067, 136830, 90293, 115836, 101583, and 15006.Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had only one Muslim male witness during his marriage to a Christian woman
Question 120352: dear sir I am a muslim got married to a christian woman who was divorced before in a registry office in london (non muslim office),in front of her family and the presence of over 20 people who wittnes...
Question 120352: dear sir I am a muslim got married to a christian woman who was divorced before in a registry office in london (non muslim office),in front of her family and the presence of over 20 people who wittnessed the cermony but withowt my family who couldnt attend ,there was only on muslim friend who attended the cermony and signed the document with her sister as wittnesses.We didnt doit in a mosque after that is my marriage valid
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. According to the four Schools, (two) witnesses are a condition for the validity of the marriage contract, most of them are of the view that it is an obligation to have witnesses at the marriage contract, but the Maaliki School of jurisprudence is of the view that it is an obligation to have witnesses when consummating the marriage. Of course, here we are talking about two trustworthy witnesses. Therefore, if the consummation of marriage took place before having witnesses, then the marriage should be invalidated, but the jurists of the Maaliki School of jurisprudence sated that the spread of the news of the marriage among the people before the consummation of marriage has the same validity as the testimony of two trustworthy witnesses, and therefore, the marriage is not invalidated. Hence, according to this view, if the news of your marriage to this girl was spread among the people before you consummated the marriage with her, then this marriage is correct. Finally, the two following points should be mentioned: 1- A Muslim should ask the scholars about the rulings which he is not aware of before acting, especially in regard to marriage and the like. 2- A Muslim should not marry a woman of the people of the Book, even though it is permissible, as such marriage could lead to many disadvantages, especially at the present time. For more benefit in this regard, please refer to Fatwa 89418 and 84724.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had proposal in her waiting period after being divorced
Question 120720: I am in a huge dilemma and going through very bad times. I need advice. 2 years ago, I got secretly married to someone who I loved without my parents' knowledge. My husband gave me so much love and ca...
Question 120720: I am in a huge dilemma and going through very bad times. I need advice. 2 years ago, I got secretly married to someone who I loved without my parents' knowledge. My husband gave me so much love and care that I felt like the luckiest woman on Earth. However, my husband had cheated on his previous girlfriend to be with me. But after marrying me, he became very religious and we both read Namaz 5 times a day. But I sometimes abused my husband's love because I knew he would do anything to keep me happy. I am with Allah's blessings rather good looking and I have had other men taking interest in me. As a result, my husband used to get very upset but I know I have never broken his trust. However, few months ago, I found out that he was flirting with his cousin for a few days. I was really shocked and extremely hurt. He said it was only a joke and swore by the Quran and Allaah that he has never fancied/loved any girl but me after marrying me. But I still find that hard to believe, I have been depressed and suicidal and asked him for a divorce. Out of anger he gave me 2 Talaaq. However, he did not realize that 2 Talaaq were enough to break our marriage. Later he wanted to be intimate with me but I said we are divorced now. He said 'we're not, we are husband and wife'. But I said I still need time to think through everything. As a result, we have not had sexual intercourse after this and I am waiting for 3 months to end. But I want to know if his statement means our divorce is not valid? I have a proposal from someone at the moment who loves me. He asked his parents to send a proposal to me but his family were against this but reluctantly agreed and his mother made Istikhaarah. She dreamt that a tree was being chopped and she was crying. I cannot tell anyone about my secret marriage and the divorce. I am wondering is it because of my secret marriage and incomplete divorce that his mother is seeing these dreams with her Istikhaarah? Please advise me. Only Allaah Knows truth.
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. We ask Allaah to exalt his mention as well as that of his family and all his companions. If this marriage took place without the consent of your guardian, then this marriage is void, as the consent of the guardian is a condition for the validity of marriage according to the most preponderant opinion and this is the view of the majority of scholars. However, the divorce that takes place from this marriage is taken into account if we adopt the view of the few scholars who say that the marriage without the consent of the guardian is valid, and this divorce is a revocable divorce. He can marry you after the end of your waiting period if it is not the third divorce, and other men can approach you for marriage after the end of your waiting period. Finally, the following matters should be mentioned: 1- The jurists agreed that it is forbidden to approach a woman who is still in the waiting period for marriage, as regards approaching a woman who is divorced from an invalid marriage then this is permissible according to the majority of the scholars. 2- We cannot interpret the dream that you mentioned in the question and whether or not it has any relation with this invalid marriage. 3- It is not permissible for a Muslim woman to establish any affectionate relationship with a marriageable man, as being negligent in this matter could lead to evil consequences, and it is a means of corruption, so one should be careful. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had sex with his divorcée thinking that divorce in menses does not count
Question 119459: asalaamu alaikum My husband is married to me and another sister.In May 2009 he pronounced the third talaq the following day she informed him her mense was on when he pronounced the divorce. My husband...
Question 119459: asalaamu alaikum My husband is married to me and another sister.In May 2009 he pronounced the third talaq the following day she informed him her mense was on when he pronounced the divorce. My husband then said the divorce does nt count.Howeva upon reseach he found out and spoke with an imam that the divorce count thru innovation. Its sinful but still counts.He found out the information in Oct. Prior to that information he slept wit her was around her uncovered.My question is did he commit ZINA or since he did know the proper information theirs no sin on him??? inshaALLAH I hope to hear from you.
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. Your husband should have asked the scholars before having sexual intercourse with his wife after he had divorced her thrice based on his belief that divorce in menses is not effective. Allaah Says (what means): {�so ask the people of the message if you do not know.}[Quran 16:43] Besides, the Prophet (saw) said: "Why did they not ask if they did not know; the cure for ignorance is to ask (someone who knows)." [Abu Daawood] Therefore, it was not permissible for him to have sexual intercourse with his wife after the third divorce unless he acted according to the view of the scholars who are trustworthy in terms of knowledge and piety and who are of the opinion that this is not forbidden. That is because it is permissible for the common person to act according to the view of the scholars whom he asked and act according to the Fatwa that they issued to him. Based on this, if he did not know the ruling and did what he did while being negligent in regard to asking the scholars, then he is sinful. However, if he was acting according to the view which he thought to be correct, then he is not sinful. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had sex with his wife one day during Ramadan two years ago
Question 113174: My husband had sex with me one day during Ramadan 2 years ago. Afterward he felt so sorry and repented. Does he have to fast after that since it happened 2 years ago?
Question 113174: My husband had sex with me one day during Ramadan 2 years ago. Afterward he felt so sorry and repented. Does he have to fast after that since it happened 2 years ago?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. It is good that your husband had repented from that sin. Along with his repentance, he has to pay the expiation which is as follows in sequence: He has to free a believing slave, if he is not able, then he has to fast two months consecutively, and if he is not able to do that, then he has to feed sixty poor people. This is what the Prophet (saw) ordered the Bedouin who had had sex with his wife during Ramadan to do.As for the wife, she is not obliged to pay any expiation since there is no evidence that enjoins expiation on the wife.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had Sex With Wife before Traveling In Ramadan
Question 112904: I decided to travel in Ramadhaan and intended not to fast on that day. As I was sick at the time, on the morning of that day I took the medicine that the doctor prescribed for me and had sex with my w...
Question 112904: I decided to travel in Ramadhaan and intended not to fast on that day. As I was sick at the time, on the morning of that day I took the medicine that the doctor prescribed for me and had sex with my wife moments before traveling. What is the Sharee'ah ruling, taking into consideration that I indeed traveled on that day? Is there a Kaffaarah (expiation) due?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.Your case, dear questioner, is one of two:You are either suffering from an illness allowing you not to fast in Ramadan or you are not. If you are suffering from an illness allowing you not to fast during the daytime of Ramadan, you are blameless for your intention for abandoning fasting, taking medicine or having sexual intercourse with your wife, if she is not fasting due to a Sharee‘ah-approved justification. In such a case, you are not required to fast and you are not like those who are not permitted to eat, drink or have sexual intercourse during the daytime of Ramadan. Still you are required to only make up for the missed days. Allaah The Almighty Says (what means): {And whoever is ill or on a journey - then an equal number of other days.} [Quran 2: 185]However, if you are healthy or suffering from a minor ailment which does not allow you to break the fast, you are not permitted to intend to break the fast during the daytime of Ramadan. Moreover, you are not permitted to take medicine, eat, drink or have sexual intercourse. If you had sexual intercourse on the day when your fasting was invalid due to making the intention not to fast and taking medicine, the grave Kaffaarah (expiation) is due in such a case, since you violated the sanctity of time by having sexual intercourse. The grave Kaffaarah is freeing a slave; if you cannot do that then it is fasting two consecutive lunar months; if you cannot do that then it is feeding sixty needy people. The sequence mentioned must be observed, according to the majority of scholars.Deciding to travel on that day does not allow you to make the intention to abandon fasting, use medicine which invalidates fasting or have sexual intercourse with your wife. Moreover, your travel on that day does not absolve you of liability and you are required to offer the Kaffaarah which has become due on you even before traveling. Likewise, the Kaffaarah is due on your wife, according to some scholars, unless she was forced to have sexual intercourse or had a Sharee‘ah-approved excuse to abandon fasting such as pregnancy or nursing. You and your wife are required to make up for that day.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had Sex with Wife in Her Confinement Period
Question 110071: Please help me. My wife had a baby 3 weeks ago. She and I were playing together, and we had sex. I know in Islam that is not allowed until after 40 days. I have made a big mistake. Tell me what to do ...
Question 110071: Please help me. My wife had a baby 3 weeks ago. She and I were playing together, and we had sex. I know in Islam that is not allowed until after 40 days. I have made a big mistake. Tell me what to do and how to repay Allah for my sin.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.
All Muslim scholars agree upon the fact that it is forbidden to have sex with a wife who is in her confinement period before she has completely stopped bleeding. The blood could stop before the forty days, which a woman should spend after giving birth without her husband having sex with her. In this case, she should purify herself (i.e. perform Ghusl) and pray. But her husband has better not to have sex with her before she completes the forty days. If you have had sex with her before the blood stopped, you should repent and ask Allah for forgiveness from this sin.
There are different views about the expiation. Imam Ahmad said it was obligatory, as Ibn 'Abbas narrated that Prophet Muhammad (saw) stated that a man who has sex with his wife while she is in her menstruation period, that he should give charity, as he (saw) said: "He should give a dinar or half a dinar as alms." [Ahmad, Abu Daawood, At-Tirmithi, An-Nasaa�i, Ibn Maajah; and Al-Haakim classified it as sound].
Imam Ahmad said: "How nice and good a Hadith it is!." Somebody asked him: "Will you go for it?". He replied: "Yes". There is no doubt that giving this expiation, which equals four grams of gold or two grams or their equivalent, is better in order to be on the safe side.
If you have had sex with her after the blood had stopped but before she completed the forty days, then you haven�t done the best but you are not obliged to pay the expiation.
Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had sex with wife who did not bathe after menses
Question 121315: I would like to know the Fatwa about one issue. I am a married person with one son. Recently I had sex with my wife as soon as her menses were over, but she did not bath. Is this Haram per Islam? I di...
Question 121315: I would like to know the Fatwa about one issue. I am a married person with one son. Recently I had sex with my wife as soon as her menses were over, but she did not bath. Is this Haram per Islam? I did that knowing she was clean, but does my wife have to bath before we have sex? What is the ruling in the light of Qur'an and Hadith?
Answer: Praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all his Family and Companions.Having sex before taking the ritual bath after ending the monthly period is not permitted. Allah Says (interpretation of meaning): {They ask you concerning menstruation. Say: that is an Adha (a harmful thing for a husband to have a sexual intercourse with his wife while she is having her menses), therefore keep away from women during menses and go not unto them till they have purified (from menses and have taken a bath). �}[2: 222]. Whoever makes sex before taking the ritual bath should repent towards Allah and should not commit it again. According to the majority of Muslim scholars he is not obliged to pay any expiation but he should ask forgiveness for that mistake. Ibn Abbas (Radiya Allahu Anhu) is of the opinion that he should give half a Dinar as expiation ( ). It is reported by Abu Dawood from the Prophet (Sallallahu Alaihi wa Sallam) that he said: "Whoever makes sex with his wife during her menses should pay half a Dinar" . Al-Hanabila relied on this narration and imposed Kaffarah on those who make sex before ending the menstruation period.However, a Muslim should not have sex with his wife unless the menses stop completely and she takes the ritual bath.Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had sexual intercourse before terminating Ihraam
Question 113846: I will travel for Hajj this year, so when should I assume Ihraam? Does sexual intercourse invalidate Ihraam? Thanks.
Question 113846: I will travel for Hajj this year, so when should I assume Ihraam? Does sexual intercourse invalidate Ihraam? Thanks.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger. It is better for anyone seeking to perform Hajj or 'Umrah to assume Ihraam at the designated Meeqaat in compliance with the practice of the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, and his Companions . However, it is permissible to assume Ihraam before reaching the Meeqaat and it also does not affect the validity of the Hajj. Ibn Al-Munthir said, "Scholars unanimously agreed that anyone who assumes Ihraam before reaching the Meeqaat has actually entered into Ihraam."After assuming Ihraam, either at the Meeqaat or before reaching it, the pilgrim must avoid all the violations of Ihraam, like having sexual intercourse, applying perfume, wearing form-fitting clothes and the like. Having sexual intercourse before the first (or minor) termination of Ihraam invalidates Hajj and the one must do the following:Completed the Hajj one is performing.Make Hajj up for in the next year.Slaughter a camel . The first termination of Ihraam is attained by doing two out of three of the following matter that a person in the state of Ihraam does on the Day of Nahr (10th of Tuhl-Hijjah):Throwing the pebbles at the Jamrah of Al-'Aqabah. Shaving or shortening the hair Performing Tawaaf Al-Ifaadhah (with Sa'y for pilgrims performing Ifraad or Qiraan type and who did not do it, and for pilgrims performing Tamattu' type of Hajj).Finally, having sexual intercourse after the first termination of Ihraam does not affect the validity of Hajj, but a sacrificial animal must be slaughtered and distributed among the poor residents of Makkah.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had Sexual Intercourse During The Day of Ramadan Without Knowing That It Was Haraam
Question 113065: Assalam alaikum ,about 9 years ago when i got married i didn't know alot ,so in Ramadan i slept with my husband about 3 to 4 times. i didn't know how bad it was to sleep together during Ramadan . plea...
Question 113065: Assalam alaikum ,about 9 years ago when i got married i didn't know alot ,so in Ramadan i slept with my husband about 3 to 4 times. i didn't know how bad it was to sleep together during Ramadan . please help me in telling me what should i do about it ? Thank you so much.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.
Whoever has sexual intercourse during the day of Ramadan while knowing that it is forbidden to do so (even if he does not know the consequences of sexual intercourse) then his fast is void and he is obliged to expiate for doing so. The expiation is to free a slave, and if this is not available, he is obliged to fast for two consecutive months, and if he is again unable to do so, he must feed 60 poor persons. For more benefit, please refer to Fataawa 84189 and 83914.
If a person does not know that it is forbidden, like a new Muslim, or a person who grew up in a remote country, or in a society where ignorance is widespread, then his fast is void as well and he is obliged to make up for that day in which he had sexual intercourse. The view we adopt here in Islamweb is that he is not obliged to expiate due to his ignorance that this act is forbidden.
For more benefit, please refer to Fataawa 86584 and 100372.
Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had Sexual Relationship with a Married Woman and Now Regrets It
Question 117217: Sheikh, I married a woman who was married with another man, he divorced her at her request. Now I have 3 children with that lady. Question is have I done unjustice with my wife's ex-housband? Or I hav...
Question 117217: Sheikh, I married a woman who was married with another man, he divorced her at her request. Now I have 3 children with that lady. Question is have I done unjustice with my wife's ex-housband? Or I have to divorce her now and return her to his ex housband?Second question is: I was 21 years old I had a sexual relationship with a woman who was happily married. After few months I and she broke up, I were young and stupid I got so angry that I told her housband all the sexual relationship story. Is there any hope for me, will my tauba be accepted? How can I ask forgiveness from her housband? What can I do?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad, (saw) is His slave and Messenger.If you married her after her ex-husband had divorced her and her ‘Iddah (post-divorce waiting period) had expired, then she is lawfully your wife, and your children with her are lawfully attributed to you. You are not required to divorce her. You did not mention in the first question what indicates that you have done injustice to her husband, and the basic assumption is that you did not do him injustice. As for the second question, no matter how great a sin may seem, the forgiveness of Allah, The Exalted, is greater. Whoever repents to Him, his repentance will be accepted by Allah. Allah, The Exalted, Says (what means): {Say, “O My servants who have transgressed against themselves [by sinning], do not despair of the mercy of Allah. Indeed, Allah forgives all sins. Indeed, it is He Who is the Forgiving, the Merciful.”} [Quran 39:53] You should have good expectations of your Lord and beware lest Satan causes you to despair of His Mercy, which would result in your destruction.It is forbidden to have a romantic relationship with a non-Mahram woman, and if this woman is married, the sin is graver. In addition to disobeying Allah, The Exalted, it is an offence against her husband and a violation of his honor. Part of perfecting your repentance is to seek his forgiveness and ask for his pardon, but only if you believe that it would not lead to a graver evil. If you fear it would lead to a graver evil, it is sufficient for you to supplicate in his favor and ask forgiveness for him.We would like to stress that it is incumbent on a Muslim who is afflicted with a sin to repent and conceal his sin. He should not tell anyone of it, and he is not obliged to inform the person whom he wronged and violated his rights of what he did against him. With regard to violated financial rights, he has to return the money to the rightful owner, even if in an indirect manner. If the violated right is related to his honor or the like, he should not tell him of it but instead ask Allah, The Exalted, to forgive him and supplicate in his favor, as we mentioned above. We advise you to seek his pardon only because he already knows of your offence.Allah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Had two miscarriages and is eager to have children
Question 107492: salam.please i wanna ask about something that's really worrying me.my sister in law cannot get pregnant and my sister takes a medicine that she cannot stop to get pregnant and i have had two miscarria...
Question 107492: salam.please i wanna ask about something that's really worrying me.my sister in law cannot get pregnant and my sister takes a medicine that she cannot stop to get pregnant and i have had two miscarriages unfortunately, does this mean that Allah SWT is not happy with us?? what can i do to satisfy Allah SWT knowing that i am different than a lot of people in my family,i pray,fast,give charity,zakat always read kuran alhamdulillah and i love my parents.Also,my husband and i avoid haram as much as we can.i feel sad for our situation cause our houses are empty of children.actually in my family only few persons are religious,most of them unfortuenately do not pray or even fast and some of them have very hard hearts! please help me and give me few advices to do to help my family and have children (bi ithn Allah),i constantly make tasbeeh,esteghfar,salat upon prophet Mohammad PBUH,what else can i do and thank u so much
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. If a calamity befalls a Muslim it is not necessarily because of a sin that he did, and it could merely be a test from Allaah. If he is patient with this calamity, then the outcome is that his sins will be forgiven and his status raised. For more benefit, please refer to Fatwa 83577.There is no doubt that performing acts of good deeds is a reason for having children. Therefore, we advise you to continue performing these acts which you were performing, and you should earnestly supplicate Allaah and consult specialist and experienced doctors. Furthermore, you should not forget to perform Ruqyah as it is beneficial, Allaah willing. After this, if it is a necessity to resort to permissible ways of in-vitro fertilization, then this is permissible. For more benefit in this regard, please refer to Fatwa 82554. You may also refer to Fatwa 86757 which is entitled "Du�aa� for successful childbearing". Finally, we advise you to be kind to your family, and advise those who do not pray or fast and who commit prohibitions and offer your advice in a good manner and a soft way, while supplicating Allaah to guide them. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Hadd of a slave woman who commits Zina
Question 123680: Assalamu alaikum. Verse 24:2 is punishment for fornication. Now Verse 4:24,25 says punishment for married slave girl is Half of that.So based on these 2 Verses some people say this is punishment for b...
Question 123680: Assalamu alaikum. Verse 24:2 is punishment for fornication. Now Verse 4:24,25 says punishment for married slave girl is Half of that.So based on these 2 Verses some people say this is punishment for both married and non married women.They say if above Verse 24:2 meant only non married women and Hadees says for married women punishment is throwing stones then how can this punishment be made half for married slave girls?So they say this Hadees contradicts with Quran and there is agreement with Scholars any Hadees which contradicts Quran should be rejected.But I read from other Scholars that what is meant here is punishment for married slave women is half of unmarried free women. That would mean 50 stripes and then it makes sense.Is this right?Then what is the punishment for unmarried slave girls?Any Hadees?And why this difference in punishment for married and umarried women?Any reason for it in Texts?And is there Ijmaa that is there is no difference of opinion among any Scholars that Hadees is Saheeh which says punishment for married women is throwing stones.Did any Scholar say it is weak?Also is it because Hadees specifically says punishment for married women Scholars concluded that Verse is talking of unmarried women as the Arabic word used for both is same which is Zaniath.Or is there any other evidences from Quran or Hadees, Zaniath meant in Quran is only for non married women?Hope Insha Allah you will answer all above questions. Jazakhallah Khair
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. The Hadd (i.e. the corporal punishment determined by the Islamic Law) for Zina (fornication or adultery) that is mentioned in Chapter An-Noor [Quran 24] is for the free unmarried men and women, and this is because there is a text about the ruling on slave women in the verse in Chapter An-Nisaa� [Quran 4], so the Hadd for a married slave woman if she commits adultery is half of the Hadd of a free virgin woman, i.e. 50 lashes. Besides, the ruling on free married men and women was specified in a verse the recitation of which was abrogated. Thus, the ruling of stoning for a free married man or woman (who commits adultery) is confirmed in the Quran, the Sunnah and the consensus of the scholars . Ibn 'Abbaas said: "'Umar said: 'Allaah sent Muhammad with the truth and revealed the Book [the Quran] to him, and among what Allaah revealed, was the verse of the Rajm (the stoning of a married person (male and female) who commits illegal sexual intercourse), and we did recite this verse, understand it and memorize it. Indeed, the Prophet (saw) did carry out the punishment of stoning to death and so did we after him. I am afraid that after a long time, somebody will say, 'By Allaah, we do not find the verse of Rajm in the Book of Allaah, and thus they will go astray by leaving an obligation which Allaah has revealed. And the punishment of Rajm is to be inflicted on any married person (male and female), who commits illegal sexual intercourse, if the required evidence is established or there is pregnancy or confession." [Al-Bukhari and Muslim] Moreover, 'Ubayy Ibn Ka�b said: "The Chapter Al-Ahzaab [Quran 33] has originally been as long as the Chapter Al-Baqarah [Quran 2], and it was mentioned in it: "If an old man and an old woman commit adultery, surely stone them to death." [Ibn Hibbaan] Besides, you should know that the confirmed Sunnah can never contradict the Quran as both are revelation from Allaah which we are obligated to follow, and the Ahaadeeth of stoning the married male or female who commits adultery are confirmed in the books of Hadeeth whose authenticity is agreed by the Muslim nation. As regards the Hadd for a slave woman who is not married if she commits fornication, then it is like the Hadd of a slave woman who is married, i.e. 50 lashes. Indeed, this was reported in the Sunnah; Abu Hurayrah narrated that the Prophet (saw) was asked about a slave woman [who is not married] if she commits fornication, and he said: "If she commits fornication, then flog her and if she commits fornication again, then flog her, and if she commits fornication again, then flog her, and then [if she commits fornication again] sell her if only for a rope (i.e. for a very cheap price)." As regards the distinction in Sharee�ah between the ruling of a married person and the ruling of a non-married person, then its wisdom is evident, that is because a person whom Allaah blessed with marriage and he/she abandons what is lawful for him/her and seeks what is unlawful, then surely he/she is not like a person who was not previously married. Similarly, the difference between a slave woman and a free woman is evident, as a slave woman is likely to behave in an indecent manner, contrarily to a free woman who is reserved. Al-Qurtubi said: "The wisdom behind their [slave women�s] Hadd being less (than the free women's Hadd) is that they are weaker than the free women, and it is said: they do not get what they want in the same manner as the free women do. It is also said: "The punishment is determined according to the extent of the favour of Allaah upon the person." Finally, At-Taahir Ibn 'Ashoor said: "Whoever contemplates the Sharee'ah (Islamic Law) will see that there is wisdom behind making the punishment graver according the strength of the betrayal of the person and the weakness of his/her excuse." Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Hadd of zina with regards to non-Muslims
Question 123575: Concerning stoning, it is said that Imam Abu Hanifah and Imam Malik said that it is a condintion for the muhsan (married person) to be Muslim. Is it true that in an Islamic state Dhimmis (a non-Muslim...
Question 123575: Concerning stoning, it is said that Imam Abu Hanifah and Imam Malik said that it is a condintion for the muhsan (married person) to be Muslim. Is it true that in an Islamic state Dhimmis (a non-Muslim living under the Muslim rule) will not be stoned if they fornicate but will lashed instead? Also, if they are not married, then they are given a warning but are not stopped. A hadith says that the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, lashed two Jews for adultery but that he did not stone them, is that authentic? What is the proof used by those scholars? Can you please provide references?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. What you mentioned about Abu Haneefah and Maalik, that it is a condition for the muhsan (i.e. an adult, free who has previously enjoyed legitimate sexual relations in matrimony regardless of whether or not the marriage still exists) to be a Muslim, is correct. Al-Bahr Ar-Raa�iq, authored by Ibn Nujaym, says about the conditions of ihsaan (being a muhsan), "Ihsaan from stoning to death: freedom (not to be a slave), reaching puberty, Islam, and having had intercourse in a valid marriage ... but not a non-Muslim, pursuant to the hadeeth that reads, 'Whoever commits shirk (associates partners with Allaah) is not considered a muhsan; and the Prophet's stoning of the two Jews was according to the ruling of the Torah before the revelation of the verse of stoning, and then it was abrogated.'"His statement included their evidence in this and refuted the hadeeth that you pointed to. At-Taaj wal-Ikleel authored by Al-Mawwaaq Al-Maaliki reads, "Maalik said, 'The hadd (i.e. the corporal punishment determined by the Islamic Law) is not applied to a non-Muslim in adultery; rather, he is referred to the people of his religion, and he is punished if he declares it [i.e. if he discloses his sin]."Ash-Sharh Al-Kabeer by Ad-Dardeer from the Maaliki School of jurisprudence reads, "It is a condition in all: to have reached puberty and to be a Muslim; so the hadd is not applied on a boy, or a mad person, or a non-Muslim; them having illegal sexual intercourse is not Islamically called Zina (fornication or adultery)�"The issue is a matter of difference of opinion; some scholars hold the view that the hadd for zina should be applied on a Thimmi (a non-Muslim living under the protection of the Muslim state); in any case, under Islamic rule, the matter depends on the Muslim ruler or his deputy, as his ruling removes disputes in matters of ijtihaad (a juristic opinion on matters that are not specified in the Quran or the Sunnah).
Allaah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Hadeeth
Question 43394: is the hadeeth take half of your religion from Aisha saheeh
Question 43394: is the hadeeth take half of your religion from Aisha saheeh
Answer: Bismillahir-rahmanir-rahim.
Brother Muslim,
Mother Aisha is,no doubt, an important source of Hadeeth.
Wassalamu alaikum. (Source: islamicity)
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Hadeeth 'My Companions are like stars' is not Saheeh
Question 100849: Is the Hadeeth where the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said that his, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, companions guide people to the truth as the stars guide people to the light Saheeh?
Question 100849: Is the Hadeeth where the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said that his, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, companions guide people to the truth as the stars guide people to the light Saheeh?
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, the Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and messenger.The scholars have graded this Hadeeth as very Dha'eef. Some scholars have even ruled it as fabricated: Ahmad, Ibn 'Abd Al-Barr and Ibn Hazm are among those who graded this Hadeeth as Dha'eef. Al-Albaani said that this Hadeeth is fabricated.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Hadeeth (narration) on trials at the end of time
Question 100688: In Al-Bukhaari, there is a Hadeeth narrated by Ibn 'Umar, may Allaah be pleased with them both, that one day the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, supplicated Allaah The Almighty to bless the Le...
Question 100688: In Al-Bukhaari, there is a Hadeeth narrated by Ibn 'Umar, may Allaah be pleased with them both, that one day the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, supplicated Allaah The Almighty to bless the Levant (Ash-Shaam) and Yemen for Muslims. The Companions asked him to pray for Najd to be blessed as well. However, he did not, and told them that this would be the land where trials and instability begin, and where the horn of the Satan would rise. Would you please explain the meaning of this Hadeeth?May Allaah reward you well.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, the Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. This is an authentic Hadeeth, and we find its text in Saheeh Al-Bukhari and a part of it is narrated in Saheeh Muslim. This Hadeeth indicates the excellence of the Levant (Ash-Shaam) and Yemen, and that the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, supplicated Allaah The Almighty to bless these places. Other narrations refer to the advantages of these two regions, and the merits of living there, especially at the end of time when trials increase. One of these narrations was reported by Abu Daawood, Ibn Hibbaan, and Al-Haakim. They report that the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said that, at the end of time there would be three brigades of the Muslim army: one of them in the Levant, another in Yemen and a third in Iraq. Ibn Hawaalah asked the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, to recommend the best place to be if he was alive at that time. The Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, recommended the Levant (Ash-Shaam) and advised the Companions to inhabit Yemen, if the Levant did not appeal to them. This is because Allaah The Almighty guaranteed that anyone who lived in Yemen would not be wiped out by trials. For further information, read the chapters on the merits and encouragement in books of Hadeeth.The Hadeeth draws our attention to the fact that trials, disputes and Satanic temptation towards disbelief, unlawful desires and religious innovations will rise in Najd. Scholars maintained different opinions as to the interpretation of "Najd", and the predominant opinion is that it refers to the area east of Al-Madeenah. Quoting Al-Khattaabi Imaam Ibn Hajar says that Najd is in the direction of the East; and that according to the inhabitants of Al-Madeenah, Najd is the desert of Iraq and its surrounding areas. Quoting other scholars, Ibn Hajar mentioned that the people of the east were disbelievers at the time of the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam.Therefore, he mentioned that trials and disputes would originate there. We witness today that what the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said has come true. The first of the trials and disputes appeared in the east and this has led to the disunity of Muslims, which has been a success for Satan. Besides, many Bid'ahs (religious innovations) originated in the east. Examining all the narrations of the Hadeeth and those similar to it, prove that the desert of Iraq and the surrounding areas east of Al-Madeenah is the Najd referred to in this Hadeeth. The Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, was reported to have been facing the east when he said that trials would arise there and that this is where Satan�s horn would appear. [Muslim]Moreover, in another narration of the same Hadeeth by At-Tabaraani in his Al-Kabeer, the name of Iraq is explicitly mentioned instead of Najd. The Hadeeth at hand, which mentions the advantages of the Levant and Yemen, advises Muslims to join their armies. This Hadeeth does not recommend joining Iraq�s army; it clarified that the characteristics of this area were discouraging from the viewpoint of Sharee'ah (Islamic law). The region of Iraq has actually been a place of dispute, instability, and trials for Muslims throughout history.In conclusion, Najd is in the direction of Iraq. It is important to note, however, that this does not mean that the entire region and its inhabitants are absolutely dispraised. Rather, its inhabitants who remain patient with the afflictions and trials which occur there and who remain steadfast amidst the temptations that Allaah The Almighty saves them from are good people. Also, all Praise to Allaah The Almighty, that there have been countless leading Qur'an reciters, scholars of Hadeeth and Fiqh (Islamic jurisprudence), ascetics, and Imaams, all from that region. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Hadeeth 3380 in Sunan An-Nasaa'i is about the Prophet's marriage with Safiyyah
Question 100182: I have come across the following hadith:"I entered Paradise and saw a damsel with tan skin and beautiful dark (red) lips, so I asked Jibreel, 'Who is this?' And he replied, 'Indeed, Allaah, The Exalte...
Question 100182: I have come across the following hadith:"I entered Paradise and saw a damsel with tan skin and beautiful dark (red) lips, so I asked Jibreel, 'Who is this?' And he replied, 'Indeed, Allaah, The Exalted, knows what Ja'far ibn Abi Talib desires, and that is tan skin and dark (red) lips, so Allaah created this for him.'"I was wondering, what is the authenticity of this hadith? I have heard that Al-Albaani declared it fabricated in his Silsisat, but I read in his revision of Sunan An-Nasa'i, as hadith 3380, narrated from Anas, that it was authentic. I am confused, what is the final authenticity of this hadith?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.The hadeeth number 3380 that was reported in the book Saheeh wa dha�eef Sunan An-Nasaa'i authored by Al-Albaani is not the same hadeeth that you mentioned in your question and which Shaykh Al-Albaani classified as fabricated in Silsilat al-Ahaadeet Adh-Dha'eefah. The wording of the hadeeth that was reported in Sunan An-Nasaa'i is as follows:"Anas narrated that the Prophet (saw) conquered Khaybar, and we prayed the Fajr prayer there before the morning twilight appeared, then the Prophet (saw) got on his mount (horse), and Abu Talhah also got on his mount, and I mounted behind Abu Talhah on the same horse. The Prophet (saw) rode through the streets of Khaybar and (I rode so close to him) that my knee touched the thigh of the Prophet (saw) ; the wrapper got aside from his thigh, and I could see its whiteness. When he entered the town, he said, 'Allahu Akbar (Allah is the Greatest), Khaybar shall face destruction. Whenever we approach near a (hostile) nation (to fight), then evil will be the morning of those who have been warned.' He repeated this thrice. The people came out for their jobs, and some of them said, 'Muhammad (has come).' (Some of our companions added, 'With his army.') We conquered Khaybar, took the captives, and the booty was collected. Dahyah (a Companion) came and said, 'O Allah's Prophet! Give me a slave girl from the captives.' The Prophet (saw) said, 'Go and take any slave girl.' He took Safiyyah bint Huyayy. A man came to the Prophet (saw) and said, 'O Allah's Prophet! You gave Safiyyah bint Huyayy to Dahyah, and she is the noblest lady of the tribes of Quraythah and An-Nadheer, and she befits none but you.' So the Prophet (saw) said, 'Bring him along with her.� So Dahyah came with her, and when the Prophet (saw) saw her, he said to Dahyah, 'Take any slave girl other than her from the captives.� The Prophet (saw) then manumitted her and married her. Thaabit asked Anas, 'O Abu Hamzah! What did the Prophet (saw) pay her as dowry?' He said, 'Her freedom was her dowry, for he manumitted her and then married her ... While on the way, Umm Sulaym dressed her for marriage (ceremony), and she sent her as a bride to the Prophet (saw) at night. So the Prophet (saw) was a bridegroom, and in the morning, he said, 'Whoever has anything (food) should bring it.' He spread out a leather sheet (for the food), and some brought dates and others cooking butter. So they prepared a dish of Hays (a kind of dessert). And that was the Waleemah (the marriage banquet) of the Prophet (saw) .'" [Al-Albaani classified it as Saheeh (sound)] Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Hadeeth �??the Rahim Caught Hold of the Haqw of Allah�??; and Believing in Authentic Hadeeth that Is Not in 4 Books of Sunnah
Question 100106: Ibn 'Abb?s (may Allah be pleased with him) reported that the Prophet (may Allah's peace and blessings be upon him) said: "The Rahim (kinship ties) is hanging on to the Hujzah of The Most Merciful; He ...
Question 100106: Ibn 'Abb?s (may Allah be pleased with him) reported that the Prophet (may Allah's peace and blessings be upon him) said: "The Rahim (kinship ties) is hanging on to the Hujzah of The Most Merciful; He maintains ties with whoever maintains it (the Rahim) and severs ties with whoever severs it." (Ahmad, ibn Abi 'Asim, as-Silsilat as-Saheehah). Can you please tell me i had heard this hadith is this authentic and what does hujzah of Allah means and is it important to believe in a hadith which is not from 4 top hadith books and can you please tell is chest,waist or hip an attributes of Allah or not Pleasr answer from shaih hadeeth and Quran
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.Our answer to your question is summarized in the following points:Firstly, the Hadeeth that you mentioned is authentically attributed to the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, and classified as Saheeh (authentic). It was narrated by Imam Ahmad and classified as Saheeh by Ahmad Shaakir and Al-Albaani . It was cited in Saheeh Al-Jaami' no.1629, and As-Silsilah As-Saheehah no.1602. Secondly, the meaning of the Hadeeth was authentically narrated in Saheeh Al-Bukhaari as well with the word Haqw (waist) in its text (instead of Hujzah). It was narrated on the authority of Abu Hurayrah that the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said: "Allah created the creation, and when He had finished it, the Rahim (womb) got up and caught hold of the Haqw (Waist) of Allah, whereupon, Allah said, 'What is the matter?� It said, 'I seek refuge with You from those who sever the ties of kinship.� Allah Said, 'Will you be satisfied if I bestow My favors upon those who maintain your ties and withhold My favors from those who sever your ties?� It said, 'Yes, O my Lord!� Then Allah said, 'That is for you (i.e. your request is granted).�" Abu Hurayrah added: "If you wish, you may recite the Saying of Allah, The Exalted (which means): {So would you perhaps, if you turned away, cause corruption on earth and sever your [ties of] kinship?} [Quran 47:22]"Thirdly, concerning the meaning of the word Hujzah, Al-Albaani said in As-Silsilah As-Saheehah: "Hujzah means the waist, around which the Izaar (loincloth or waist-wrap) is fastened. The Arabs say, 'He took hold of his Hujzah,� meaning he sought refuge with him and asked him for help, as underlined in Arabic dictionaries." [End of quote] The word Haqw denotes the same meaning, i.e. waist, and is also used to refer to the Izaar itself, as in the Hadeeth narrated on the authority of Umm 'Atiyyah : "So he gave her his Haqw and said, 'Shroud her in it,� meaning in his Izaar." Ibn Hajar said in Fat-h Al-Baari: "Haqw, in principle, is the waistline, around which the Izaar is fastened, and it was used in this Hadeeth metaphorically to refer to the Izaar itself." [End of quote] Fourthly, as long as the Hadeeth is authentically attributed to the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, it is obligatory to believe in the meanings it includes, and it is not a condition for the acceptance of a Hadeeth and for belief in it that it should be cited in four of the Sunnah books or in the most authentic among them. Rather, it is obligatory to believe in any Hadeeth that is authentically attributed to the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, even if it was not cited in Saheeh Al-Bukhaari and Saheeh Muslim. Fifthly, the word Haqw or Hujzah used in this Hadeeth renders it one of the texts addressing the Attributes of Allah, The Exalted, and accordingly, it must be affirmed and understood according to the apparent indication of the wording without Ta�weel (figurative interpretation), Takyeef (i.e. explaining how the Attributes are), or Tamtheel (i.e. drawing resemblance and likeness between Allah and the creation). We believe and affirm that Allah, The Exalted, has two Hands, Hearing, and Sight and that such Attributes are not like those of human beings. We do not figuratively interpret them, and we refer knowledge about their nature (how these Attributes are) to Him, acting upon His Saying (which means): {He (Allah) knows what happens to them (His creatures) in this world, and what will happen to them (in the Hereafter) but they will never encompass anything of His Knowledge.} [Quran 20:110] The same applies to the Attributes used in this Hadeeth. Al-Qaadhi Abu Ya'la said in Ibtaal At-Ta�weelaat: "Know that it is not intellectually inconceivable that this report should be interpreted according to the apparent meaning of the wording and that the Haqw and Hujzah are among the Essence-Related Attributes of Allah; they do not actually refer to a body organ or part, and that the womb will hold on to it, not in the sense of touching and direct contact, but we should rather use such words as they are used in the Sharee'ah texts. A similar example is the interpretation of placing His Foot in Hellfire, according to the apparent meaning of the wording, and the fact that Prophet Daawood (David) took hold of His Foot. In both contexts, the Foot of Allah is not interpreted as to refer to an actual body part, nor are any touching and direct contact involved. Just as we affirmed that He created Aadam (Adam) with His two Hands, being among His Essence-Related Attributes, and that the creation with them did not involve touching nor direct contact, the same applies here. Likewise, we affirmed the attribute of Istiwaa� (being firmly seated/established on the Throne) not in the sense of attributing physical directions to Him nor suggesting touching and direct contact. Our Shaykh Abu 'Abdullaah cited this Hadeeth in his book and interpreted it according to the apparent meaning of the wording, and this was also the apparent indication of Ahmad�s statement in this regard." [End of quote] Sixthly, it is not mentioned in the Quran or the Sunnah, as far as we know, that the attributes you mentioned: chest, etc. were ascribed to Allah, The Exalted. Seventhly, Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen said: "Delving deep into such matters is wrong because the Messenger of Allah, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said: 'Ruined are those who indulge in pointless and hair-splitting discussions.� He did not say it once but repeated it thrice! As far as such matters pertinent to the Unseen are concerned, you should accept what is authentically reported and disregard what was not mentioned. This applies to the matters pertaining to the Attributes of Allah or what is more momentous; we must not discuss them with greater reason. This is contrary to the attitude of some students of religious knowledge who say: 'We want to research the creed-related issues,� and raise questions about creed-related matters which the Companions did not ask about nor were explained in the Quran and Sunnah. We should beware of such attitude as well." [End of quote] Allah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Hadeeth �??Whoever Enters a Horse among Two Horses�??
Question 114142: selemu aleykoum, I read a hadith about competitions that says: "Whoever enters a horse among two horses in a competition and there is no guarantee which horse will win, then this is not considered as ...
Question 114142: selemu aleykoum, I read a hadith about competitions that says: "Whoever enters a horse among two horses in a competition and there is no guarantee which horse will win, then this is not considered as gambling. On the other hand, if a horse is entered in a competition between two horses, and there is a guarantee that one of them will win, then that is considered as gambling. " Can you explain it to me?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.
The Hadeeth which you referred to in the question was narrated by Abu Hurayrah who said: “The Messenger of Allah, sallallahu ‘alayhi wa sallam, said: “Whoever enters a horse (in a race) between two other horses, not knowing whether or not it will win, that is not gambling. But whoever enters a horse (in a race) between two other horses, while he is certain that it will win, then that is gambling.” [Abu Dawood, Ibn Majah, Imam Ahmad in (Al-Musnad) and Al-Hakim in (Al-Mustadrak)]. However, Sheikh Al-Albani classified it as Da'eef (weak).
On the assumption that the Hadeeth is authenticated, it means if the race was between two and the prize was from both of them, then this is gambling. But if they enter a third horse with them (in the race), provided that horse is equivalent to their two horses, and can win the race, and the third man did not participate in setting the prize, then there is nothing wrong with that. Moreover, whoever (of the three competitors) wins the race takes the prize. The third one who did not pay anything in participation in the prize is called the Mohalil (legitimizer). But if the horse of the third man was weak, slow, and cannot win (the race with the other two horses), then there is no consideration for entering it in the race and the competition is deemed gambling even if they entered it in the race. This meaning was briefly mentioned by As-Sindi in his footnote on Sunan Ibn Majah.
Therefore, there is an elaboration regarding the competition, which we brief as follows:
- If the competition is not for a compensation, then it is permissible. But if the competition is for a compensation, it is permissible in some cases and it is forbidden gambling in other cases. The cases in which the competition for a compensation is permissible are as follows:
1- If the prize is from a donor other than the competitors, such as a given person or company saying to the competitors: “Whoever wins between you two will have such amount of money.”, as a donation from him/it; in this case, there is nothing wrong with that.
2- If one of the competitors takes out money and says to his friend: “If you win, this money is yours. But if I win, then you owe me nothing and I owe you nothing.” In this case, the prize is set by only one party not both parties.
3- If the prize is set by the competitors, whereby each participant pays a part of the prize, then this case is not valid, and it is prohibited gambling unless they enter a Mohalil (a legitimizer).
This is when they enter with them a competitor who has an equal opportunity to win and take the prize without him paying anything. This is what is indicated in the Hadeeth on the assumption of its authentication. This opinion was adopted by some scholars.
For more benefit on the ruling on competition prizes and horse racing, please refer to Fatawa 3381 and 87600.
Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Hadeeth about 12,000 coming out of Aden-Abyan
Question 100336: Assalaamu alaykum dear Scholar. In fatwa 303817, you mention the following hadith: "Out of Aden-Abyan will come 12,000, giving victory to the (religion of) Allah and His Messenger. They are the best b...
Question 100336: Assalaamu alaykum dear Scholar. In fatwa 303817, you mention the following hadith: "Out of Aden-Abyan will come 12,000, giving victory to the (religion of) Allah and His Messenger. They are the best between me and them." (Ahmad: 2918, 2079 and Ath-Thabrani in Al-Kabir: 11029 [11/56]) as being authentic. My question and my humble request is: can you provide an explanation (sharh) to this hadith; your assistance in this matter will greatly be appreciated. May Allaah reward you.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah and that Muhammad, sallallaahu ʻalayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger. Ibn ʻAbbaas reported that the Prophet, sallallaahu ʻalayhi wa sallam, said, "Out of Aden-Abyan will come 12,000, giving victory to the (religion of) Allaah and His Messenger. They are the best between me and them." [Ahmad - Al-Albaani graded it saheeh (sound)]Aden-Abyan is a region in Yemen named after a man called Abyan. Al-Mulla ʻAli Qaari wrote, "Abyan is originally the name of a man to whom Aden is attributed. It was also said Aden Abyan is a village near the sea in the direction of Yemen. It was also said that Abyan is another name for the city of Aden in Yemen..." [Sharh Mishkaat Al-Masabeeh 7/2901]The hadeeth refers to the events of the end of time and underlines the merits of the people of Aden. It also sheds light on the virtue of this army that will rise up from Aden, and this entails being true adherents of the Sunnah of the Prophet, sallallaahu ʻalayhi wa sallam, following his example and that of his Companions.Allaah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Hadeeth about 99 parts of wisdom given to the Prophet, sallallaahu alayhi wa sallam
Question 100902: I need some help. I hope somebody amongst you may help me. I have a question which needs not a Fatwa but an answer. The question is: God Almighty, scholars say, bestowed 99 parts of wisdom on the Prop...
Question 100902: I need some help. I hope somebody amongst you may help me. I have a question which needs not a Fatwa but an answer. The question is: God Almighty, scholars say, bestowed 99 parts of wisdom on the Prophet, sallallaahu alayhi wa sallam, and the rest of one part to the rest of the humanity. Kindly guide me as to on which source this statement is based. Some scholars say this has been mentioned in Tafseer Mazhari but where in and in which volume and page? I read in a book that it has been confirmed in a book called Awariful Ma'arif (Arabic) too. Please guide me and email me because I may not be able to locate this answer on your website. If you are unable then please do guide me more on this.
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. We ask Allaah to exalt his mention as well as that of his family and all his companions. We have not come across any evidence on this narration after an extensive search in all our resources.As regards the Tafseer of Al-Math-hari, it is written by Muhammad Thanaa' Allaah Al-'Uthmaani Al-Hanafi Al-Math-hari An-Naqshabandi who died in 1225 A.H. This Tafseer is written in 10 volumes, and its author had trodden the Soofi way, and it is not among the resources with authentic narrations. The same thing applies to the book of 'Awaarif Al-Ma'aarif, written by As-Sahrawardi. This author is not among the scholars of Prophetic narrations and this book is one of the Soofi books which contained many mistakes and many weak narrations. Since the narration is not authentic, it is not permissible to believe in its content as it is among the news of the unseen which one could not be absolutely certain about except from a text in the Quran or in the authentic Sunnah of the Prophet (saw) .Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Hadeeth about a Bedouin asking the Prophet, sallallaahu �??alayhi wa sallam, to teach him good
Question 100407: Is the following hadith authentic and can I quote it? Anas ibn Malik (may Allah be pleased with him) narrated, A Bedouin man came to the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) and said "O Messenger...
Question 100407: Is the following hadith authentic and can I quote it? Anas ibn Malik (may Allah be pleased with him) narrated, A Bedouin man came to the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) and said "O Messenger of Allah, teach me good"So the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) took him by the hand, and said, "Say 'SubhanAllah, walhamdulillah, wa la ilaha illa Allah, wa Allahu akbar�." (Glory be to Allah, and all praise be to Allah, and there is no (true) deity but Allah, and Allah is the Greatest)So the Bedouin counted them on his fingers and then left, either to contemplate over the words or to memorize them, then he returned. When the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) saw him, he smiled. The Bedouin, who was a simple man, asked "SubhanAllah, walhamdulillah, wa la ilaha ila allah, wa Allahu Akbar- these are all for Allah, so what is for me?"The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him), still smiling, said,"O bedouin, when you say, 'Subhanallah', Allah says, 'You have spoken the truth', when you say, 'Alhamdulillah', Allah says, 'You have spoken the truth', when you say, 'La ilaha illa Allah', Allah says, 'You have spoken the truth', when you say, 'Allahu Akbar', Allah says, 'You have spoken the truth'.If you say 'O Allah forgive me�, He says 'I have done so�. If you say 'O Allah have mercy on me, He says 'I have done so�. If you say 'O Allah, give me rizq (provision), He says 'I have done so�."(Reported by ibn Abi Ad-Dunya and Al-Bayhaqi, and has been classed as Saheeh by Al-Albani)
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu ʻalayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.Al-Bayhaqi presented this Hadeeth in his book Shuʻab Al-Eemaan, and Al-Albaani declared it to be Saheeh (sound) in his books As-Silsilah As-Saheehah and Saheeh At-Targheeb wa At-Tarheeb. We could not find any other scholars who have commented on the authenticity of this Hadeeth and its chain of narration.Al-Maqdisi also presented it in his book Al-Mustakhraj min Al-Ahaadeeth Al-Mukhtaarah mimma lam Yukhrijahu Al-Bukhari wa Muslim fi Saheehayhima, also known as Al-Ahaadeeth Al-Mukhtaarah. This may also support the authenticity of the Hadeeth.In any case, Al-Albaani is one of the senior Hadeeth scholars of our time, so it is correct to follow his assessment of the Hadeeth and there is no blame in citing this Hadeeth as evidence based on Al-Albaani's assessment.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)