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Question about Past tense verbs

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QRASoldier View Drop Down
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    Posted: 01 January 2012 at 6:24pm
I was taught that all Arabic verbs can be traced back to their 3-letter roots: فَعَلَ. We were taught that each letter (Faa, Ain, Laa) is called Faa/Ain/Laam Kaleemah or 1st/2nd/3rd Radical (western style), respectively. But there was one thing that I was confused with:

My Ustadh mentioned that the Faa Kaleemah and Laam Kaleemah ALWAYS stay as /fatha/ and don't change their vowel signs. However, when you conjugate a past tense verb to indicate that the doer of action is "more than 2 men", the third radical gets a dhammah sign on top of it. This contradicts what my teacher told me. Does his rule only apply to the masculine, singular verb scenario?
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Post Options Post Options   Thanks (0) Thanks(0)   Quote Full of Hopes Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 25 January 2012 at 8:32am
 Yes its because of the waw that u add to the verb n past to make it plural. 
And whoever seeks a religion other than Islâm, it will never be accepted of him, and in the Hereafter he will be one of the losers(3:85)
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