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drdoug View Drop Down
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Post Options Post Options   Thanks (0) Thanks(0)   Quote drdoug Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 07 May 2010 at 6:57am
Also,
what about men. Sex with male slaves was not allowed, and I am assuming that they had needs as well.

Thanks,
Doug
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Post Options Post Options   Thanks (0) Thanks(0)   Quote drdoug Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 07 May 2010 at 6:56am
Thanks for the response.

I thought slaves were allowed to be taken in war? Wasn't one of muhammad's wives a former slave who had been taken in war?

I have even heard fundamentalist say things like "We are going to take your wives as war booty"

Please clarify

Thanks,
Doug
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Post Options Post Options   Thanks (0) Thanks(0)   Quote Chrysalis Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 06 May 2010 at 11:15pm
Originally posted by drdoug drdoug wrote:

Thanks for the response.

I realize it was common practice, but why didn't God forbid it. Why did he expressly allow sex with slaves?

Thanks,
Doug


Hello Doug,

Thought I'd interject.

It is interesting that although it was tolerated previously... Slavery is no longer practiced by Muslims. Infact if you analyse Islamic texts, you notice a pattern in which Prophet Muhammad and Allah are setting the groundwork for abolishment of slavery. At a time when slaves were basically considered property - with virtually no human rights, Islam set the guidelines and controls and introduced HRights. The early revelations started off by giving slaves rights - and then moved on to manumitting slaves. You will notice in later revelations that the penance of almost any sin in Islam was manumitting a slave (setting him/her free).

As to your question, why God didn't expressly forbid Slavery in one go . . . well, Islam is fortunately for us (unfortunately for some) a practical religion. It was Socially, Economically, Realistically not possible nor wise to eradicate slavery in one go !

Imagine 1000s of slaves, who currently have a roof, food and shelter to be immediately set free in the streets. How do they survive? Where do they go? Will they have that social acceptance ? Slaves & Masters were interdependent on each other - so it would be wiser to gradually introduce the concept of freedom, cultivate & encourage it. The way I look at it is, that (to me) Allah eventually wanted freedom and abolishment of slavery, and gave us the laws/means to achieve that. (status quo)

In Islam, it is forbidden to capture a free man and make him/her a slave. So basically, once the previously owned slaves died or were manumitted, there was and is no way to re-initiate slavery. I personally think that the way Islam went about eradicating slavery was very strategic and well-thought !

As for why sexual relations with slaves was allowed:

The slaves obviously had sexual needs. No master was going to allow their slaves to go off and get married. So this was an outlet for them as well. It was also a better alternative than slaves indulging in prostitution. This was one way the slaves could have a healthy sexual relationship. (Look at it from the slave's point of view)

Also, I think it reflects on the non-elitist/racist culture that Islam was cultivating. i.e. Slaves were not considered untouchable or dirty by Muslims. They were normal human beings, and that regardless of the slave's status, she was considered good enough to  have her master's children ! Muslims had no qualms in establishing intimate relations with slaves.

Also, if we analyze it deeper - this was another way to change mindsets and help the process of eradicating slavery. When slaves would have children, the father would more often than not manumit the slave and marry her, so that the children would be free citizens. Having intimate relations would probably also lead to love, compassion, human-bond . . . which again would give the owner reasons to manumit the slave - and see her as a human being, not just property. Human Psyche...






"O Lord, forgive me, my parents and Muslims in the Hereafter. O Lord, show mercy on them as they showed mercy to me when I was young."
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Post Options Post Options   Thanks (0) Thanks(0)   Quote Nausheen Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 06 May 2010 at 5:43pm
DrDoug,
Your questions are very informative, so thank you for the same.
 
Wont interrupt Seeks in answers to your various questions. MashAllah the explainations you have received so far are very beneficial to myself as a muslim.
 
as to your last Q, I dont know if physical intimacy was 'expressly' allowed with slave girls.
Islam is a religion which came down in 23 long years. Many commands did not take effect suddenly, while others did.
For example the order to divorce any wife after 4 was a sudden command.
 
However, the command to abstain from alcohol came down in stages. In the same way, abolishing slavery was not a one time command. Muslims were encouraged to free their slaves, and much reward was placed on doing so. To my understanding this encouragement was a means of dissolving the system of slavery from the society. Then having any relations with opposite gender, out of wedlock is forbidden, so what you are looking for, came as an indirect command.
 
Hope someone with better grasp on the subject will explain further.
 
nausheen
<font color=purple>Wanu nazzilu minal Qurani ma huwa

Shafaa un wa rahmatun lil mo'mineena

wa la yaziduzzalimeena illa khasara.
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Post Options Post Options   Thanks (0) Thanks(0)   Quote drdoug Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 06 May 2010 at 8:45am
Thanks for the response.

I realize it was common practice, but why didn't God forbid it. Why did he expressly allow sex with slaves?

Thanks,
Doug
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Post Options Post Options   Thanks (0) Thanks(0)   Quote seekshidayath Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 06 May 2010 at 4:43am
Originally posted by drdoug drdoug wrote:



What about the "whom your right hand possesses" clause of this verse. I was told this means slave girls. I find this deplorable, but you had a good explanation for the multiple marriage so if you can explain this I would appreciate it.

Thanks again,
Doug
Good question
 
Slavery already existed long before Islam. It was a system whereby a human captured in wars or kidnapped could be sold as a �possession.� That term applied to both sexes, not to women only. In some cultures slaves were considered subhuman and treated brutally. In Europe, for example, Romans threw Christian slaves to the lions while the public cheered; female slaves were thought to have no souls and were tortured mercilessly; slaves lived in degrading conditions; both sexes were forced to offer sexual favors to their masters; and as �possessions� they had no choice, no will, and no rights.
 
 
�Prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings be upon him), instead of taking concubines, entered into lawful marriages based on reason and wisdom. Maria the Copt was given to him as a present, but rather than taking her as a concubine, the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) married her, thus elevating her status by marriage.�
 
 
 
Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) said: �All the descendants of Adam are sinners, and the best of sinners are those who repent."
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Post Options Post Options   Thanks (0) Thanks(0)   Quote seekshidayath Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 06 May 2010 at 4:06am
Originally posted by drdoug drdoug wrote:

[QUOTE=seekshidayath]
 

Thank you for taking the time to answer.

Why did Muhammad get them married if it was the wrong thing to do? I thought his actions were supposed to be perfect.
 
Please  note that Prophet {pbuh} was a humanbeing. He was not God. Humanbeings are fallible to do mistakes, Prophet Muhammad was a perfect  slave of Allah swt.

His desire to remove the prejudice against former slaves is admirable... but honestly if the marriage did not work I can't see how it was that productive.
 
Point 1 you need to remember is that Prophet Mohammed PBUH is not God. He did not plan to break the marriage. We as Muslims believe that plan of Prophet can fail and this is position of only God whose plan never fail. God had some other plan and you know what it is. This was to break another wrong tradition of jahiliyya.
 
2nd point is that, the very act of Zainab getting married to Zaid itself carry lots of weight. Marriage to be successful will be completely different issue.
 
Islam inherited the inhuman institution of slavery. There were scores of slave men and women in every house. Instantly freeing them, it is clear, would have resulted in a lot of social and economic problems. Islam, therefore, adopted a gradual methodology to do away with slavery. It undertook various measures in this regard.
 
  "Despite the fact that Zayd and Zaynab's marriage lasted a very short time, its effects on Muslims have been extensive. It is such that following this event, freed slaves were no longer looked down upon by society and they went on to established dynasties and kingdoms throughout the Islamic world."

As can be witnessed, Zaynab and Zayd's marriage was exemplary in that it made understood that superiority is based on the level of piety and fear of Allah. Nobody can be superior to another based on their lineage; the first criteria that should be sought when assessing compatibility should be Islam.

 

Why could she not just divorce her husband and marry someone else?
 
As we can see, the Messenger of Allah's marriage to Zaynab did not occur through his own desire, but a divine revelation . Yes,  she wanted divorce from her husband {Zayd }
 
That would remove the doubt about the authenticity of this revelation
 
No one had doubt about the authenticity of revelation. You must have missed a point that if Prophet was to withheld any revelation he would have holded this revelation first. Infact it was a severest trial for the prophet.
 
because why would a prophet have God someone divorce their husband to marry someone else. Many so called " prophets" have had divine commands to marry another mans wife... so you can understand my doubt I am sure.
 
Let me clear Dr, that Prophet did not marry else wife. Infact both Zayd and Zainab wanted to get separated. They finally were separated. According to the system of that society then, Zainab since was a divorcee shud have been married to a slave only ! Again it would have been a problem to her. Meanwhile Allah revealed

: "But thou didst hide in thy heart that which Allah was about to make manifest: thou didst fear the people, but it is more fitting that thou should fear Allah. Then when Zaid had dissolved (his marriage) with her, with the necessary (formality), We joined her in marriage to thee: in order that (in future) there may be no difficulty to the Believers in (the matter of) marriage with the wives of their adopted sons, when the latter have dissolved with the necessary (formality) (their marriage) with them. And Allah's command must be fulfilled." (Surah Al-Ahzab (33: 37).

Despite the order to marry Zaynab was one which was very difficult for the Prophet, it was impossible for him to dismiss since it was Allah the Almighty's command. The marriage had taken place in the eyes of Allah, with the angels acting as witnesses.


To be blunt, it appears to me that the purpose of this verse could have been because of his desire for another mans wife.
 
Ahhh ! You are wrong Dough.
 

Khadija {first wife of prophet} died in 617 and in 620 according to another. His marriage to Zaynab took place in 627. Considering that Zayd and Zaynab's marriage lasted approximately a year and a half, it would have been possible for Prophet Muhammad to have wed Zaynab in the five years following the death of Khadija; however, he did not. If Prophet Muhammad had desired to marry Zaynab prior to Zayd's marriage to her, he would have actualized this desire.

 
 According to this custom, the Arabs regarded the adopted sons and foster sons equally in all respects. This, of course, is against human nature and as such had to be abrogated. However, as a social custom, it was so deeply rooted in the Arab society that it could only be the Prophet's personality, which could abolish it. Consequently, on the Almighty's bidding, the Prophet married her to sympathize with her and to reform this custom.� 

Thanks for the response. Perhaps you can clarify.

If I am direct, I apologize. I honestly want to know the truth.
 
I hope it shall get you clarified. You can any number of times untill you get cleared. I may not be regular but i shall see that other members attend you. Our goal is to let out the truth and clear your misconceptions about Islam. You are always welcome Dough.
 
And yes don't get low when you see your posts to get approvals. Most of the new members get this complaint. It's to avoid spamming. Irrespective of any religion, all new members, untill they reach certain number of posts need to wait for the approvals from mods and admin.
 
 
 




Edited by seekshidayath - 06 May 2010 at 4:09am
Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) said: �All the descendants of Adam are sinners, and the best of sinners are those who repent."
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Post Options Post Options   Thanks (0) Thanks(0)   Quote drdoug Quote  Post ReplyReply Direct Link To This Post Posted: 05 May 2010 at 11:56am
With all do respect this answer is inadequate. In my mind what you just said was 99% of what he did was really good, so that makes up for this bad thing.

Also, just because she was vocally critical of Muhammad does not give him the right to have her killed. Freedom of speech is universal... and being unwilling to allow vocal dissent against you is not a very admirable quality in a man of God.

I have personally seen Muslims out on the streets calling for the Popes death and calling him all sorts of horrid things... but I do not believe that he would be justified in having them killed.
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