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Topic: W
Wady must discontinue before Wudhoo�?? if discharges last 10 minutes
Question 109128: The waswas of the satan affect me in the way that I have to pee before every prayer for example it is 12:59 I do not have to pee and when I hear the adhan at 13:00 I auttomaticly have to pee just beca...
Question 109128: The waswas of the satan affect me in the way that I have to pee before every prayer for example it is 12:59 I do not have to pee and when I hear the adhan at 13:00 I auttomaticly have to pee just because of my mind.The urge then is not the same as for example i wake up in the morning and i normally have to pee(like every body else).I think you know what I mean there is a difference of "my body says i have to pee" and "my mind says i have to pee". On top of that, which makes the situation even more complicated, my body produces waddy.The waddy comes out 10-15 minutes and then it stops.So the combination of theese two is that before every prayer i have to spend 15 minutes on washing and than i can pray.Should i just do like i i said :first pee,then wait 10-15 minutes,wash the penis,take wuddu and then pray or just pee,take wuddu and than pray without waiting 10-15 minutes.I hope you understood my situation.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. We advise you to ignore the mental urge to urinate and not to go relieve yourself unless you have a real need for it and not just due to Waswaas. If the case is as you described, that when you relieve yourself the discharge of Wady (secretion of prostate) lasts for around ten minutes, then you should wait until the discharge ceases, cleanse the area of impurity, perform Wudhoo�, then pray. You should not hasten to perform Wudhoo� before the Wady discharge discontinues because these discharges render the Wudhoo� invalid. Indeed, you are not suffering from incontinence; so your prayer is not valid with Hadath (state of ritual impurity).
For more benefit on how to overcome Waswaas (satanic whispers), please refer to Fataawa 83401and 199253.
Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Wage in return for agency is not bribery
Question 115308: As-Salaamu 'AlaykumI own an office which provides many services. I fulfill people's needs� which are mostly difficult to fulfill� in return for money. Fulfilling this need or task does not harm others...
Question 115308: As-Salaamu 'AlaykumI own an office which provides many services. I fulfill people's needs� which are mostly difficult to fulfill� in return for money. Fulfilling this need or task does not harm others. Is the earned compensation considered bribery? Is it a lawful or ill-gotten gain? May Allaah Keep us away from unlawful gain.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. Agency is approved by the Sharee'ah. It is permissible to be an agent and take a wage for every act that is valid to be done by oneself. Al-Qurtubi said, "Agency is a contract of authorization which Allaah Permitted due to the need for it and the benefit involved. It is not possible for everyone to deal with all of his affairs without the help of others, or just out of seeking comfort, therefore he authorizes someone to help him."Hence, it is permissible to take a sum of money in return for services and fulfilling needs. This is not considered bribery.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Wages and duration of labor contract must be specified
Question 115439: Dear Shaykh, Assalaamhu Alaikum My question is about working for my mother who has a house and wishes to rent rooms in it. She agreed, and as I need to earn a proper salary/wage, she agreed to pay me ...
Question 115439: Dear Shaykh, Assalaamhu Alaikum My question is about working for my mother who has a house and wishes to rent rooms in it. She agreed, and as I need to earn a proper salary/wage, she agreed to pay me every month from the rental profits, provided I look after the running of the property. Mother has said that she doesn�t want any of the profit and would allow me to have all of it as a wage in return to fulfilling certain work conditions i.e. deal with estate agents or advertise for tenants. Deal with any repairs such as calling out electricians, plumbers etc and paying them out of the rental profits. Deal with paying bills out of the rental profits. And dealing with tenants� complaints and ensuring that they have what they need. The amount of rental income she could receive could vary in the year according to how many rooms we fill in or how long the tenants stay. Some months she may get �600 and other months it could be �1200 and then other months it could be �2400 or even more etc. The problem here is how should a work contract in Islam be made between my mother and I? Should there be a defined fixed period of a beginning and an end stipulated (and renewed if necessary), and should she pay me a fixed wage/salary as opposed to me accepting any odd amount that we are left with at the end of the month for the same conditions required of me? And also there may be times where nothing is required of me i.e. a month or two may pass and the tenants have no need of me or there are no repairs to be made or no bill to pay etc. Am I still entitled to my wage/salary for this period within the contract? Is it permissible for me to except whatever amount we receive in total profit at the end of the month, every month i.e. �600 one month, �1800 the next month etc. for my services on the basis that my mother has agreed to not wanting any of the profit and has said that I can take all of it? Please advise me as to how I should go about all of this insha�Allah.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger.
There is nothing wrong with working with your mother in running the house for her, however, there should be a fixed fee and it is not appropriate for it to be unknown, i.e. to be what remains after paying bills and the like from the rental income from the rooms. In addition, this income is not stable for it may be little or much.
Anyway, you can agree with your mother to get a fixed salary and if what remains from the rent money exceeds it, she can give it to you as a gift if she wills. Also, you have to agree with her on a fixed period of the contract and it may be on an annual or monthly basis, i.e. that a specific sum of money for each month or so.
Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Wahab Bin Jareer Bin Hazim
Question 101056: I want to ask about the reporter Wahab Bin Jareer Bin Hazim 's condition in Hadith. Was he reliable or weak?
Question 101056: I want to ask about the reporter Wahab Bin Jareer Bin Hazim 's condition in Hadith. Was he reliable or weak?
Answer: Praise be to Allah, the Lord of the World; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all his Family and Companions. Imam Ibn Hajar wrote in his book 'Taqrib al-Tahzib', Wahab Bin Jareer Bin Hazim, Abu Abdullah, al-Azdi al-Basari is reliable (trustworthy), among the narrators of ninth category, died 206 A.H. All the Imams of the six known books of Hadith narrated from him in their books.Imam Zahabi wrote in his book 'Man Tukullima Fihi', Wahab Bin Jareer Bin Hazim is trustworthy and his narrations are reliable but he is considered weak while he narrates from Imam Shu'abah .Imam al-Nasa'i said: 'He is unobjectionable'.Imam Ibn Hibban mentioned him in his book of 'al-Thiqaat' (The reliable).Imam al-Ajali said: 'He is from Basrah and trustworthy'.Imam Ibn Hibban said: 'He is trustworthy'.Imam Ahmad said: ' Wahab never narrated from Shu'abah , and he was an adherent of Sunnah'. In short, Wahab was a trustworthy narrator and his narrations are acceptable except his narrations from Shu'abah a. The majority of the scholars of Hadith considered him weak in his narrations from Shu'abah .Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Wahabis & Sunnis:
Question 4897: In countries of the Indian Subcontinent, there are two groups of Muslims who call themselves Wahabis and Sunnis. They are always engaged in vigorous arguments which may sometimes lead to fighting. Nev...
Question 4897: In countries of the Indian Subcontinent, there are two groups of Muslims who call themselves Wahabis and Sunnis. They are always engaged in vigorous arguments which may sometimes lead to fighting. Nevertheless, their worship is very similar. Could you please explain the difference between the two?
Answer: No group actually calls itself Wahabis. However, people may call some of those who express certain views as Wahabis, which is a name supposed to refer to the followers of Imam Muhammad ibn Abdulwahhab who was a great reformer and scholar. He lived in Najd over 200 years ago and worked hard to eradicate all innovations from Islamic worship. Such innovations had crept into the practices of Muslim communities due to ignorance and long periods of decline undergone by Muslim communities. He maintained that the example of the Prophet i.e. the Sunnah should be followed diligently. There is no disagreement among scholars that this is required of every Muslim. It is unfortunate that some of the practices which Imam Muhammad ibn Abdulwahhab spoke very strongly against still persist in some Muslim communities. These include such terrible practices as visiting the graves of supposedly saintly people and asking the dead to intervene with Allah on behalf of the visitor for any purpose. Such a practice Islam shuns, since it is a manifestation of associating partners with Allah. Imam Muhammad ibn Abdulwahhab belonged to the Sunni Muslims who, by virtue of their name, should follow the Sunnah, or the example, set by Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) with diligence. Hence, it is wrong to classify Muslims as Wahabis and Sunnis, since the followers of Imam Abdulwahhab belong to the Sunni group of Muslims. The vigorous arguments and fighting you have spoken of are certainly deplorable. This happens, nevertheless, because people are sometimes too rigid in their views. Those who insist on following the Sunnah of the Prophet diligently should have the patience to teach their fellow Muslims, with respect and compassion, that some of their practices are unacceptable from the Muslim point of view. Had they done so, they would find better response by other Muslims. (Source: Arab News)
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Wahabis talking of Hell Fire
Question 104389: Why do Wahabis always talk about Hell Fire and Punishment? Don't they believe in the Mercy of Allah (SWT)?
Question 104389: Why do Wahabis always talk about Hell Fire and Punishment? Don't they believe in the Mercy of Allah (SWT)?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.
First of all, the methodology of the Quran in calling to Islam, advising people, and clarifying matters, is to use both At-Targheeb [encouraging people to do good by mentioning Allah’s promises and rewards] and At-Tarheeb [warning people from evil by mentioning Allah’s threats and punishments]
Allah Says (what means): {Tell my servants that I am indeed the Oft-Forgiving - Most Merciful and that My Chastisement Will be indeed The most grievous Chastisement.} [Quran 15:49-50]
Allah also Says (what means): {The Forgiver of sin, the Acceptor of repentance, the Severe in punishment.} [Quran 40:3].
Allah further Says (what means): {(Nothing is said to you (O Muhammad) except what was said to the Messengers before you. Verily, your Lord is the Possessor of Forgiveness, and (also) the Possessor of Painful punishment).} [Quran 41:43]
Therefore, a Daai'yah (a caller to Islam) should not be limited in his Da’wah to frightening people of Hell and Allah's punishment just as he should not be restricted to speaking of Allah’s Mercy and Forgiveness.
It is for this reason that the Salaf (righteous predecessors) said: He who worships Allah by hope only, is a “Murji’ ” (from the Murjia group) and he who worships Allah by fear only, is a “Khariji” (from the Khawaarij group) .
The Sunni (who follows the Quran and Sunnah) worships Allah by fear, hope, love, desire and awe.
Allah Says about the Prophet Zakariyah and his family (what means): {They used to call on Us with hope and fear, and used to humble themselves before Us).} [Quran 21:90]
The human being's soul tends to like those who calm it down and assure it. It is even inclined to those who awake desire for enjoyment in it and beautify for it the delaying of repentance. But this is a great mistake. A wise person is not satisfied with that; rather, he lives with both fear and hope and does not opt for one of them only.
Finally, there is no group calling itself by this name (Wahabi) and we do not have any knowledge about a group or organization which limits its activity only to speaking of Allah's Wrath and Punishment.
Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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wahabiyyah & Ashariyyah
Question 2618:
what are the main diferances between the wahabiyyah and the ash ariyyah? which is the best school to follow?
Question 2618:
what are the main diferances between the wahabiyyah and the ash ariyyah? which is the best school to follow?
Answer: Dear Br. G. As-salaamu alaykum. As much as Muslims differed among themselves in matters related to Jurisprudence (the Mazhabs or schools of thought, such as the Hanafi school and Maliki school, etc.), they also differed among themselves in matters related to the Islamic doctrine although not in the basics of the doctrine itself. For the Sunni Muslims, the two groups that had differences in doctrinal matters were the Ash�ariyyah and the Maturidi schools. The Ash�ari was named like this because of Aboul Hassan al-Ash�sari, and the Maturidi school took its name from Abou Mansour al-Matridi. They were both developed in the Fourth Century A.H. (after the Hijra). When Ibn Taymiyya came in the 7 th Century A.H., he denounced the Ash�ari and Maturidi schools and founded his own which he claimed to be compatible with the Salaf al-Saleh, or the venerable ancestors. Then, Mohammad ibn Abdul Wahhab (from the Hanbali school) revived the school of Ibn Taymiyya in the 18 th Century. The differences are in matters of theology and Islamic philosophy that need lengthy explanation to be described accurately, however the nature of this section doesn�t allow us to go into extreme details. Briefly, the Ash�ari used reason in the defense of the traditionalist Muslim creed, especially the creed of Ahmad Ibn Hanbal which was based on the Qur�an and the Hadith. But while the latter renounced the use of reason or speculative theology, the Ash�ari justified its use in defending the true faith against external attacks and internal deviators. What we advise you to do if you are interested in Islamic Philosophy is to consult a book specialized in this matter to increase your knowledge. As to the issue of which one is more correct, it is better for us, as Muslim not entrenched into the philosophical dialogue, not to adopt one or another school and simply believe in the Shahada. Thank you for asking and God knows best. (Source: IslamiCity)
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Wahhabi Movement
Question 2110: Assalamuailaikum
I would appreciate it if you could briefly explain what is 'Wahabi' and what the 'movement' is all about.
Question 2110: Assalamuailaikum
I would appreciate it if you could briefly explain what is 'Wahabi' and what the 'movement' is all about.
Answer: 2110 Dear Br. S. As-salaamu alaykum. The Wahhabi movement was founded
by Mohammad bin Abd al.Wahhab (1703-1792) who allied with the Ibn Saud
family to create the Saudi State. It was a reformist movement in the
18th century that united diverse tribal groups in the current Saudi
Arabia region. The movement, also known today as the Salafi movement,
rejected traditional forms of sufism and the veneration of any human
being. Mohammad bin Abd al.Wahhab, who followed the Hanbali school of
thought, tried to abolish Arabian Islam which included magical rituals
and faith in holy men The goal of the movement was the purification of
the heart from sins and vices. The movement later on, spread into many
parts of the Islamic world. Much has been written about the movement. If
you need more information, please read a book related to it. Thank you
for asking and God knows best.
========
(Source: IslamiCity)
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Wahhabi Movement
Question 2111: Assalamuailaikum
I would appreciate it if you could briefly explain what is 'Wahabi' and what the 'movement' is all about.
Question 2111: Assalamuailaikum
I would appreciate it if you could briefly explain what is 'Wahabi' and what the 'movement' is all about.
Answer: 2111 Dear Br. S. As-salaamu alaykum. Your question was answered in 2110.
You must have accidentally posted it twice. Thank you for asking and God
knows best.
(Source: IslamiCity)
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Wahhabism
Question 1457: WHAT IS WAHHABISM?
Question 1457: WHAT IS WAHHABISM?
Answer: Dear Br. S. As-Salaamu Alaykum. Wahhabism is a title given to the people who have joined the reform movement of Muhammad bin Abd al Wahab (1703-1787) which started in Arabia. The more correct title nowadays is Salafism, which is a connotation to the people who follow the tradition of the early Muslims. The Salafi movement rejects the traditional forms of Islamic mysticism (Sufism) and the veneration of human beings. It rejects the customs of magic, faith in holy men, and saints. It also encourages the purification of the heart from sins, wickedness, and vices. There is much to say about the movement regarding its alliance with the political power in the eighteenth century and its development. For more information, please write us back specifying what you would like us to expand on or consult a book on Modern Islamic history. Thank you for asking and God knows best. (Source: IslamiCity)
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Wailing in loud voice unbefitting of Prophets
Question 104705: I know that Prophet Ya�qoob (Jacob), may Allah exalt his mention, complained/cried to Allah about his sadness, but did he wail? Is it okay to wail to Allah? There is a hadith that says that wailing at...
Question 104705: I know that Prophet Ya�qoob (Jacob), may Allah exalt his mention, complained/cried to Allah about his sadness, but did he wail? Is it okay to wail to Allah? There is a hadith that says that wailing at times of sorrow is cursed. May Allah reward you.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah and that Muhammad, sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger. Linguistically speaking, wailing (Arabic: 'Aweel) refers to weeping loudly, to raising the voice with crying and screaming, to the sound coming from the chest while crying, or to screaming (at times of grief) without crying. All this is referred to as wailing. So if you mean by wailing raising the voice with crying and screaming, as is apparent in the question, then this is something unbefitting of the Prophets of Allah, who are the most patient in the face of afflictions. Among them is Prophet Ya�qoob, may Allah exalt his mention. It was not stated in the Quran that he wailed and cried in a loud voice. Rather, Allah described him in the Quran as "Katheem", which means the one suppressing and hiding his grief. The author of At-Tahreer wa At-Tanweer said, "Katheem is the hyperbolic form of Kaathim, derived from Kathm, which means internal suppression; i.e. suppressing grief and hiding it from people and weeping in seclusion instead." How could it be conceived that such a person would wail and cry out in grief?! You asked, 'Is it okay to wail to Allah?' You should know that wailing in the form of crying only is permissible. The Prophet, sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam, cried when his son Ibraaheem passed away and said, "The eye tears up and the heart grieves, but we say only what pleases our Lord, and we are indeed grieved by your departure, O Ibraaheem." [Al-Bukhaari] As for wailing in the sense of raising the voice with crying and screaming, this is the Niyaahah that is prohibited in Islam. The author of Al-Mirqaat said, "The word Niyaahah means crying and lamenting the deceased with loud screams and cries..." Abu Moosa, may Allah be pleased with him, narrated that the Prophet, sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said, "Verily, the Messenger of Allah, sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam, disassociated himself from the woman who wails loudly, shaves her head, and tears her garments in grief." [Al-Bukhaari and Muslim] Ibn Daqeeq Al-ʻEed commented on the hadeeth, saying, "The Arabic word As-Saaliqah used in the hadeeth means the woman who wails loudly when a calamity befalls her. It is deduced from the hadeeth that such practices are prohibited." Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Waiting for regular imaam of mosque to lead prayer
Question 110461: Do we have to wait for the permanent or regular imam in order to perform the congregational prayer? Or can anyone lead the prayer without waiting for the regular imam?
Question 110461: Do we have to wait for the permanent or regular imam in order to perform the congregational prayer? Or can anyone lead the prayer without waiting for the regular imam?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah and that Muhammad, sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger. You should wait for the regular imaam as long as this would not entail delaying the prayer for long or cause harm or hardship on the congregation. This is because waiting for the regular imaam fosters unity and harmony among the people of the mosque. Indeed, whatever is essential to enable one to carry out an obligation is also obligatory. Moreover, the regular imaam has a right over the worshipers to wait for him if he has an excuse as long as waiting for him would not cause hardship, as has been mentioned above. The regular imaam has the right that none takes his place in leading the prayer except with his permission, as the Prophet, sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said, "Do not lead a man in prayer in his house or where he has authority, and do not sit in his place of honor in his house, except if he gives you permission or with his permission." [Muslim] However, if the regular imaam is late beyond what is customary according to the people of the mosque and they know that he will probably not come given their knowledge of him, then they may hold the congregational prayer and choose the worthiest of them to lead the prayer. The Prophet, sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said, "A man who is well versed in the Book of Allah and can recite it better is most worthy of leading the prayer; if (all those present) are equal in this respect, then the one who has most knowledge of the Sunnah; if they are equal in that respect too, then the one who made Hijrah (emigrated to Al-Madeenah) first; if they are equal in this respect too, then the one who embraced Islam first should lead the prayer." [Muslim] It has been narrated that the Messenger of Allah, sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam, was late for the prayer time, and Abu Bakr, may Allah be pleased with him, led the prayer. [Maalik in Al-Muwatta'] The same thing happened during the Battle of Tabook. "He, sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam, was late for the congregational prayer, and 'Abd Ar-Rahmaan ibn 'Awf, may Allah be pleased with him, led the prayer. When the Prophet, sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam, arrived, he joined the prayer behind Ibn 'Awf. When Ibn 'Awf made Tasleem (ending the prayer with the Salaam), he (the Prophet) stood up and completed what he had missed (of the prayer)." [An-Nasaa'i and others; Al-Arnaa�oot and Al-Albaani graded it saheeh (sound)] The fatwa of the Permanent Committee for Islamic Research and Fataawa reads, "The basic principle is that no one is permitted to lead others in the prayer in a mosque that has a regular appointed imaam, except with his permission. This imaam is the one most entitled to lead others in the prayer. However, If he comes later than usual, then another person may lead the people in his place in order to avoid difficulty." Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Waiting period and rights of a pregnant wife after Khul`
Question 119966: As Salaamu Alaykum please help me for I am in need of a correct answer. I was married for a year and half i pronounced kula only to find out i was pregant two days later. When i told my ex he said tha...
Question 119966: As Salaamu Alaykum please help me for I am in need of a correct answer. I was married for a year and half i pronounced kula only to find out i was pregant two days later. When i told my ex he said that he would remarry me, but he didnt. He told me that he does not have to do anything for this baby until it is born. Can you please tell me if i have an iaddah, and what my rigths are while being pregant. He told me that he is with someone else, and i dont know what to do. Is he actions according to the sunnah, and i am left to go through this pregancy alone.
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. It might be that you mean that you are divorced from your husband because of you asking for Khul�. If this is the case, then it is an obligation on a woman who is in Khul� to observe a waiting period; the majority of the jurists are of the view that her waiting period is the same as the waiting period of a divorced woman as we clarified in Fatwa 92487. Since, you are pregnant; your waiting period is until you give birth as we clarified in Fatwa 84751.Khul� takes effect as one irrevocable divorce (with minor separation), and a husband is not obliged to spend and accommodate his wife who is in a irrevocable divorce if she is not pregnant. Therefore, this man should spend on you until you give birth and he is obliged to accommodate you. However, he becomes a non-Mahram to you and it is not permissible for you to live with him in a house where he may see you [without you wearing Hijab], but if he is in a part of the house that has separate amenities and a separate entrance, then this is permissible. However, if by asking about your husband�s situation, you refer to his marriage to a second wife, then he is permitted to do so. If he wants to take you back, he may do so with a new contract, and he is obliged to be just between you and his second wife. Therefore, we advise this husband to marry you and we advise you to endeavour to this effect if he is religious and has a good moral conduct. Allaah has blessed both of you with a child who needs the nurturing of both of you, and you should both avoid anything that may be a reason of dissension. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Waiting period for the divorce by vow of abstinence
Question 121396: Please what is the Iddah of a woman whose marriage was dissolved by "Eala" or the vow of abstinence? Also, can the parties marry each other again after such dissolution?I would also like to know the p...
Question 121396: Please what is the Iddah of a woman whose marriage was dissolved by "Eala" or the vow of abstinence? Also, can the parties marry each other again after such dissolution?I would also like to know the position in respect of Zihar.
Answer:
Praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all his Family and Companions. When the period of the oath not to have sexual relationship with one's wife expires, which is 4 months, the husband is ordered to have sexual intercourse with his wife. If he refuses, she can ask him to divorce her. If he refuses, then the judge would pass a decision in favor of her divorce to prevent harm to her. The husband can make his wife return to wedlock during the waiting period, because this kind of divorce is revocable.Ibn Qudama said in Al Mughni: " the divorce of the oath not to have sexual relationship is a revocable divorce, either he caused the divorce himself, or it is the judge who passed a decision of their divorce".As regards Zhihar, which is to say to the wife "you are like my mother's back," as far as sexual relations is concerned its ruling is that it becomes forbidden for the husband to have sexual relations with his wife until he expiates for this. The expiation for this is to free a slave, and if he has no money to free a slave, he has to fast for two consecutive months, and if he cannot do so, he has to feed 60 poor people.If the husband who pronounces Zihar refrains from the expiation despite the fact that he can expiate, or if he is unable to expiate and the wife wants divorce, then she is entitled to it. However, the husband can take her back as this is a revocable divorce, without her consent or her guardian's consent.In case the divorce takes effect in Eela or Zihar, then her waiting period is like that of any divorced woman.If she is pregnant, her waiting period is until she gives birth; if she has no menses, she has to wait three moths, and if she is not pregnant but has menses, her waiting period is 3 menses. Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Waiting Period for Women after Divorce
Question 122206: My husband and I have not been intimate for over a month. I was just about to start my 2nd menses without relations with him when he divorced me. He said he didn't mean it, but if it is valid, this is...
Question 122206: My husband and I have not been intimate for over a month. I was just about to start my 2nd menses without relations with him when he divorced me. He said he didn't mean it, but if it is valid, this is our third divorce. Do I still have to wait an additional 3 menses before I can marry again?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.
If the expression used by your husband is an explicit wording of divorce such as “you are divorced”, “I divorce you”, etc. then the divorce is legally effective even if he did not mean to issue divorce.
If this divorce is the third one, then you become forbidden for him. Consequently, he cannot marry you unless you marry another man, fulfilling all the conditions of a valid marriage. After having sex with the new husband at the time when you are pure, if he divorces you voluntarily then the previous husband can marry you with a new marriage contract; i.e., fulfilling all the conditions of a valid marriage.
As far as the matter of ‘Iddah (waiting period) is concerned, it is three menses if you still have regular monthly periods even if the husband does not have sexual intercourse for years.
Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Waiting period has expired before the court verdict
Question 121427: Non-Muslim woman married a Muslim man and they are apart since about 6 months now waiting for the court to give everyone his rights and now she became a Muslim so is she allow to marry another man or ...
Question 121427: Non-Muslim woman married a Muslim man and they are apart since about 6 months now waiting for the court to give everyone his rights and now she became a Muslim so is she allow to marry another man or she has to wait for the court and that could take about1year ? Please we live in Non-Muslim land.Thank u.
Answer:
Praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all his Family and Companions. If the husband has pronounced the words of divorce and her waiting period has finished then she may marry any other man. A verdict of a court is not a compulsory condition for a divorce to be valid rather it is done only to authorize the divorce from the authorities. However, it is advisable to get the court papers before a second marriage to avoid any potential disputes.But, if she cannot wait or the delay in official procedure could lead her to temptations then she can marry after completing her waiting period.Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Waiting Period if no Intercourse Happened
Question 117424: Assalammu Allaikum Sheikh, my friends daughter was given in marriage one and half years ago and lived together and recently due to a incident between them her parents came to know that they are not li...
Question 117424: Assalammu Allaikum Sheikh, my friends daughter was given in marriage one and half years ago and lived together and recently due to a incident between them her parents came to know that they are not living happily and their parents inquired from her further she have told even they lived together in the same house they have not had any sexual intercourse for the whole period they lived together and the girl says she is still a virgin. My friend and his family tried their utmost best to settle things with the husband but he is not giving in he say he will be as he is so they have decided to go for a divorce. Sheikh I would like to know on behalf of my friend if divoced has she have to observe the waiting period (Iddah) as she is still a Virgin. If not please advise the correct procedure in detail .Jazakamullah khairan
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.If her husband stayed in seclusion with her in the way that is specified in Islamic Sharee�ah, then she must observe the waiting period (of divorce) even if he did not have intercourse with her and even if he is impotent, as the scholars stated. It is noteworthy that sexual intercourse is one of the most confirmed rights a wife has over her husband. Therefore, if the man is impotent, then he needs to treat himself.We advise the wife to be patient and help her husband in this issue, and if she fears that he could be impotent, then she may address those who are in charge of the affairs of the Muslim community where she lives so that they would remove the harm she may be afflicted with.The majority of the scholars are of the view that the man should be given a chance of one full year to treat himself, and if it is proven after this period that he is impotent, then the wife has the choice either to stay with him or to leave him.Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Waiting period of a divorcee who has her periods irregularly
Question 120775: When a man divorces his wife for the first Talaaq or the second Talaaq, he can return her or make Raj'a with in three Iddah periods. If the wife is using preventive bills, and is having periods (Iddah...
Question 120775: When a man divorces his wife for the first Talaaq or the second Talaaq, he can return her or make Raj'a with in three Iddah periods. If the wife is using preventive bills, and is having periods (Iddah) irregularly, i.e., some times she is not having it for months, on other occasions she might have menstruation two or three times in a month, i.e. she starts menstruate and the blood stops for a while, then it starts again and stops, and so on. My brother in Islam who divorced his wife recently is facing this issue. Would you please advice how the Iddah is counted under these circumstances. I would appreciate if you give me a detailed reply about these as soon as possible.
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. We ask Allaah to exalt his mention as well as that of his family and all his companions. The waiting period for a woman who has menses is three menstruations even if the period of her menses is long, as Allaah determined the waiting period by the occurrence of three menses, as He Says (which means): {Divorced women shall remain in waiting [i.e. do not remarry] for three menstrual periods.}[Quran 2:228]. So it is not permissible to ignore this rule and count three months except when the woman stopped to have menses or a girl who is below the age of puberty. Allaah Says (which means): {And those of your women as have passed the age of monthly courses, for them the 'Iddah (prescribed period), if you have doubts (about their periods), is three months, and for those who have no courses [(i.e. they are still immature) their 'Iddah (prescribed period) is three months likewise,�]}[Quran 65:4]. So the waiting period for women who have menses is by having three menstruations and those who have no menses is three months; this is either for those who have passed the age of having menses or those who are still immature.Finally, it should be noted that using pills to prevent pregnancy has many disadvantages, and causing irregularity to the monthly periods is one of these disadvantages, so a woman should not use these pills except in case of a necessity. As regards the blood that might come out after becoming pure from menses, then if it comes out after 15 days then this is menses, as the minimum period between two menses is 15 days according to the majority of jurists. But if this blood comes before the end of a period of 15 days after becoming pure [from menses], then this is not considered as a second menses, it could be that this relates to the last menses or blood outside the period of menses.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Waiting period of a woman who reverted to Islam
Question 120542: If a non-muslim woman married but seperated to a non-muslim man by the laws of their previous faith and nation converts to islam and wants to remarry a muslim man who may have proposed in advance of h...
Question 120542: If a non-muslim woman married but seperated to a non-muslim man by the laws of their previous faith and nation converts to islam and wants to remarry a muslim man who may have proposed in advance of her conversion wants to marry what is the iddah period. If you say one month please give the reason for this, if she is not coming from the home or land of enemies combatants. I have never heard of an iddah less than three months and this is confusing me.
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. We ask Allaah to exalt his mention as well as that of his family and all his companions. If the husband of this woman separated from her with a divorce, then her waiting period is the same as that of any divorced woman. Ibn Qudaamah said: 'The waiting period of the separation between the married partners (regardless of the method via which their relation terminated) is the same as the waiting period of divorce�according to the view of the majority of the scholars.'For more benefit on the kinds of waiting periods of a divorced woman, please refer to Fatwa 82929. A woman whose waiting period is calculated by months, like a young girl and a woman who passed the age of menopause, her waiting period is three months, and we did not come across any statement of the scholars who said that her waiting period is one month. Nonetheless, some scholars are of the view that one monthly menses is enough to make sure that an adulterous (or fornicator) woman is not pregnant. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Waiting period of a woman who was divorced during menses
Question 118577: Asallam u Alaikum, if a woman's menstrual blood/period began a minute before husband gave divorce or any other issue that requires waiting for iddah to end, does that cycle that just began count as on...
Question 118577: Asallam u Alaikum, if a woman's menstrual blood/period began a minute before husband gave divorce or any other issue that requires waiting for iddah to end, does that cycle that just began count as one cycle of iddah or does she have to wait for this cycle to end and another 3 more cycles ?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His Slave and Messenger. If a woman is divorced during her menses, that menstrual cycle does not count in her waiting period. Therefore, a divorced woman should observe a waiting period of three menstrual periods besides this menstrual cycle. Ibn Qudaamah said in Al-Mughni: "The menses during which the woman is divorced is not counted in her waiting period and there is no difference of opinion among the scholars on this issue." It should be mentioned that divorce during menses is an innovative divorce [that is not according to the Sunnah] and it is forbidden, and whoever did it is required to sincerely repent. Nonetheless, divorce during menses does in fact takes place according to the view of the majority of the scholars. For more benefit, kindly refer to Fataawa 81864and 238750.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Waiting period of the woman in Khul�??
Question 120377: Assalam Alay Kum! I urgently require clarification on the issue of duration of Iddah after Khul. I have read and heard that it is 3 months in case of Talaaq.I have come across this hadith Please comme...
Question 120377: Assalam Alay Kum! I urgently require clarification on the issue of duration of Iddah after Khul. I have read and heard that it is 3 months in case of Talaaq.I have come across this hadith Please comment on it and tell me if it should be ignored?OR it can be followed. Hadith was narrated from Ibn 'Abbaas that the wife of Thaabit ibn Qays ended her marriage to her husband by means of khula� at the time of the Prophet (P.B.U.H). The Prophet (P.B.U.H) commanded her to observe an 'iddah of one menstrual cycle. (Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, 1185; Abu Dawood, 2229. Also narrated by al-Nasaa�i (3497) from the hadeeth of al-Rabee� bint 'Afra�.For verification kindly visit this site http://www.islam-qa.com/index.php?ref=5163&ln=eng JAZAK ALLAH KHAIR
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger. The scholars differed in opinion about the issue of the waiting period of a woman in Khul' (asking for divorce in return for compensation). Some of them act according to the narration which you referred to in the question, that a woman in Khul' should observe a waiting period of the duration of one menstruation; this is the view of Ibn Taymiyyah . However, there is a controversy about the chain of narrators of the above narration; some scholars classified it as authentic and others classified it as weak. On the other hand, the majority of the scholars are of a different view; their evidence is the saying of Allaah (which means): {Divorced women shall remain in waiting [i.e. do not remarry] for three menstrual periods.} [Quran 2:228] The waiting period differs according to the state of the divorced woman. The waiting period of some of women are calculated by months, and for some others they are calculated by three menses, and so forth. For more, please refer to Fatwa 82929.
Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)
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Waiting until the end of a chapter or verse to switch off the Quran
Question 99473: Asala-muailykum May Allah bless you all for the wonderful website. I have a question please - when I listen to nazisms or qaseeda's or any Quraan recital on a CD. Am I allowed to put off the track dur...
Question 99473: Asala-muailykum May Allah bless you all for the wonderful website. I have a question please - when I listen to nazisms or qaseeda's or any Quraan recital on a CD. Am I allowed to put off the track during the nazisms or qaseeda's or any Quraan recital? or do I have to listen to the full track? e.g. if its a recital of a surah, and I switch off the CD player (because I have to leave) do I have to wait for the ayah (verse) to end or can I switch off?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.If one wishes to stop while reciting the Quran, he should stop at the end of the Soorah or at least the verse. It is preferable to take into consideration the context of the verses being recited and stop at a suitable part that gives a complete meaning, if not at the end of the chapter.Ibn Al-Jazari reported that 'Abdullaah ibn Abi Al-Huthayl said, "They, i.e. the Companions, disliked reciting a verse and stopping before completing it." [An-Nashr]Listening to the recitation of the Quran is the same as reciting it in this regard; the most valid opinion is that one should switch off the player at the end of a Soorah or verse.As for audio poems, there is nothing wrong with switching them off at any part of the poem.It is worth mentioning that you should beware of the religious songs (Anaasheed) recited by some sects accompanied with drums and duff (a tambourine-like instrument without bells) and possibly dancing, with claim that this is Thikr (remembrance of Allaah). They delightfully hearken to them and argue that this music and dancing enables them to attain Khushoo' (submission and humility), whereas, they do not attain Khushoo' upon listening to the words of Allaah (the Quran) or the reported Thikr being recited! This is a good example of the words of the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam: "A people do not introduce an innovation except that they leave the like of it from the Sunnah (i.e. they forgot it and neglect it)." [Ahmad]Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Waiving a debt with the intention of fulfilling a vow
Question 106215: I vowed that if I got married, I would give five thousand Dirhams in charity. In the period of preparation for the marriage, I lent my husband six thousand Dirhams as his financial situation was very ...
Question 106215: I vowed that if I got married, I would give five thousand Dirhams in charity. In the period of preparation for the marriage, I lent my husband six thousand Dirhams as his financial situation was very bad. Then, Allaah Almighty decreed that we got married. Can I consider the money that I lent him the fulfillment of the vow? Please answer me.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, the Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger. Waiving the debt in question in return for the vow does not fulfill the vow on your behalf and does not clear you of your liability. If you want to pay the vow to your husband whom you mentioned is needy, then you should receive the lent sum first and then give it to him. Ibn Qudaamah said in Al-Mughni: "If one vowed to give a sum of money in charity and then absolved someone from paying off a debt of an equal sum with the intention of fulfilling the vow, then this does not free him from his liability, even if the borrower is eligible to receive charity. Ahmad said: "Doing this does not clear him of his liability unless he receives the lent money first. This is so because charity entails ownership of the given object, while in this case, it is just remission, not ownership; so it does not clear the vow-maker of his liability, just like in the case of Zakah."If it was not possible to get back that sum, then it is obligatory upon you to fulfill your vow by giving five thousand Dirhams in charity to your husband or to anyone who is entitled to charity. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Wajib and Sunnah Acts of Ablution and Prayer
Question 109948: What are Fard and Sunnah of ablution? Also the Fard and Sunnah of Salat.
Question 109948: What are Fard and Sunnah of ablution? Also the Fard and Sunnah of Salat.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.
Allah Says (what means): {O you who have believed, when you rise to [perform] prayer, wash your faces and your forearms to the elbows and wipe over your heads and wash your feet to the ankles. And if you are in a state of janabah, then purify yourselves.} [Quran 5:6]
This verse above states the obligatory acts and components of ablution on which all scholars agreed upon.
These obligatory acts are as follows:
(1) Washing the whole face once;
(2) Washing both arms up to the elbows once;
(3) Wiping over the head with wet hands; according to the dominant opinion, one should wipe over his whole head;
(4) Washing both feet up to the ankles once. There are other obligatory acts of ablution about which the scholars differed in opinion. Some scholars consider them as Sunnah while others consider them as obligatory acts. Among these obligatory acts are:
1) Intention: It is an obligatory part of ablution according to the correct opinion for the Prophetic Hadeeth: “Indeed, actions are judged by intention.” [Al-Bukhari and Muslim]
2) Starting by saying Bismi Allah (i.e. 'In the Name of Allah). According to Imam Ahmad, the scholars who interpret the texts according to their literal meaning, and others, it is obligatory to say Bismi Allah for the Prophetic Hadeeth: “There is no prayer for one who does not perform ablution and there is no ablution for one who does not mention Allah's Name when performing it.” [Abu Daawood, At-Tirmithi and Ibn Maajah]
Since there is a difference of opinion concerning the soundness of this Hadeeth, it does not provide a decisive evidence. Thus, according to the majority of Muslim scholars, saying Bismi Allah is Sunnah. The majority of the scholars depend on the Prophetic Hadeeth reported by Abu Daawood from Rifa'ah Ibn Raafi', in which the Prophet (saw) said: “One's prayer is incomplete unless he performs ablution as Allah commands him (in the Quran); i.e. he washes his face, his arms, wipes over his head and washes his feet up to the ankles.” This is a clear reference to the obligatory acts as mentioned in Surah 5 verse 6 mentioned above, but saying Bismi Allah is not mentioned in the verse.
Furthermore, if Bismi Allah is an obligatory part of ablution, the ablution as stated in the verse becomes incomplete.
3) Rinsing the mouth, and sniffing water up into the inside of the nostrils and blowing it out. Imam Ahmad believes that it is obligatory to do these two actions (i.e. Rinsing and sniffing). His evidence is Laqit's Hadeeth that reads: “… and sniff water up the nose and blow it out strongly if you are not fasting.” [Abu Dawood] They majority of Muslim scholars believe that these actions are Sunnah since they are not mentioned in the Hadeeth of Rifa'ah that states the obligatory acts of ablution.
4) Performing the obligatory acts of ablution in the specific order mentioned in the verse of ablution [Quran 5:6] This is the opinion of ash-Shaafi'i and Ahmad . Their evidence is the verse and the Hadeeth of ‘Uthman that reads: “Whoever performs ablution as I have done, and then, performs two Raka'hs without having any other concern in his mind, all his past sins will be forgiven.” [Al-Bukhari and Muslim]
5) Close sequence: According to Ahmad, Maalik and those who agree with them, it is obligatory to wash each bodily part after the other; i.e. without separating the washing of parts with acts that are not related to ablution. Ahmad and Maalik provide evidence of the Hadeeth reported by Abu Daawood from Khaaled Ibn Ma'daan from some of the Prophet's (saw) wives that the Prophet (saw) saw a man praying and a small spot of his foot was not washed, so he ordered him (the man) to perform ablution again. Another narration reads: “(Ordered him) To perform ablution again and the prayer.” Ahmad said: 'This Hadeeth has a good chain of narrations as stated in al-Muntaqa’. Ash-Shaafi'i and Abu Haneefah and their followers believe that close sequence is only a Sunnah.
The Sunan (plural of Sunnah) of ablution are as follows:
1) Saying Bismi Allah according to some opinion among the jurists.
2) Using Siwaak.
3) Washing the hands up to the wrist, thrice, at the beginning.
4) Rinsing the mouth and cleansing the nostrils with water thrice, according to some opinion of the jurists.
5) Running one's fingers through his beard and running water through one's fingers and toes.
6) Repeating each washing thrice.
7) Beginning each action with the right side.
8) Close sequence (mentioned above), according to same opinion of the jurists.
9) Wiping the ears.
10) Being economical in using water.
11) Supplicating after performing ablution. However, some scholars believe that some of the above actions are Sunnah, while others believe that they are obligatory.
The acts of the prayer are as follows:
1) Intention.
2) Saying the opening Takbeer (Allah is the Greatest).
3) Standing during the obligatory prayers.
4) Reciting al-Faatihah (the opening Chapter of the Quran) in every Rak’ah.
5) Bowing down.
6) Standing erect after the bowing down.
7) Prostration.
8) Sitting between the two prostrations.
9) Tranquility and calmness.
10) The final sitting.
11) Recital of the Tashahhud.
12) Saying: "O Allah! Bless Muhammad" after the Tashahhud.
13) Concluding the prayer with Assalam Alaykum wa rahmatu Allah (peace be upon you and Mercy of Allah).
14) The performance of the acts should be in accordance with the above-stated order.Other actions of prayer are two in number according to Hanafi and Hanbali Schools of jurisprudence. There is a difference of opinion between the two schools; we only mention the opinion of the Hanbali School since they have the dominant evidence from our point of view.
* Wajibaat (sub-essentials).
* Sunan (supererogatory acts).
The Wajibaat include the following:
1) Saying Takbeers upon moving from one position to another.
2) At-Tasmee': Saying: "Allah listens to him who praises Him", upon standing up from the bowing position. It is a Wajib on the Iman and the one who prays alone.
3) At-Tahmeed: Saying: "Our Lord, and to You is all Praise" after standing up from the bowing down position. It is a Wajib on the Iman and the one who prays alone.
4) At-Tasbeeh while in the bowing down position; which is to say: subhaana rabiyal-‘Adheem "Glory be to my Lord, The Most Great".
5) At-Tasbeeh while prostrating, which is to say: ‘How perfect my Lord is, The Most High.’(three times)
6) Saying: "O my Lord! Forgive me" between the two prostrations.
7) The first Tashahhud and the sitting while reciting it.
Here, it is important to state that if one forgets a pillar of the prayer, and then, remembers it, he has to perform it and prostrate for forgetfulness; otherwise, his prayer becomes invalid. As for the Wajib (obligatory act), one is not required to do it if he forgets it, but he has to perform the prostration of forgetfulness only; otherwise, his prayer becomes invalid.The Sunan of prayer are as follows:
1) Raising hands up with Takbeer at the beginning of prayer, bowing, on returning to the erect position (after bowing down) and at the beginning of the third Raka'h.
2) Placing the right hand over the left one.
3) The opening supplication and "I seek the protection of Allah from Satan" after the first Takbeer (of Ihram).
4) Reciting a portion from the Quran after al-Faatihah.
5) Saying "Ameen" at the end of al-Faatihah by the Imam, the people led in prayer, and the one who prays alone. It is to be in secret in Thuhr and ‘Asr prayers, while aloud in the other prayers.
5) Placing one's knees on the floor before hands according to the Hanbali, Shaafi'i and Hanafi Schools, although this is not the dominant opinion.
6) Resting on knees upon moving for standing.
Actions which are disliked during the prayer:
1) Putting a garment on one's shoulders without returning one of its ends on the other shoulder.
2) Enveloping one's body with a garment and performing a prayer without uncovering any parts of his body even hands and feet.
3) Covering one's mouth with a garment and so on.
4) Bringing one's hair and garment together to prevent them from spreading or being soiled.
5) Placing one's hands on hips or tightening one's waist with belt as a form of imitation of disbelievers.
6) Taking the position of animals such as (1) squatting of a dog in sitting for Tashahhud, i.e. to sit on buttocks with the legs drawn up and putting hands on the ground, (2) stretching of a dog in prostration, i.e. to stick its front legs to the ground while in the position of prostration, and (3) turning around like the fox.
7) Making little motions for no need such as: fidgeting one's clothing or body or turning face.
8) Making one's belly touching the two thighs while in the position of prostration.
9) Performing the prayer in one garment or in a place where one's attention might be distracted.
Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Wajib: Basic definiton of
Question 4898: Wajib: Basic definiton of
Question 4898: Wajib: Basic definiton of
Answer: A wajib is also obligatory, but to a lesser degree. Witr prayer, after Isha, is considered wajib by certain schools of thought. While its omission is strongly reprehensible, it does not specifically incur punishment. (Source: Arab News)
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Wakeel in marriage appointing another person as Wakeel
Question 117498: Assalaamu alaykum. My marriage took place one year ago. My uncle took my consent for marriage and later appointed my mother as Wakeel (agent). He, my uncle, was the witness for the marriage, along wit...
Question 117498: Assalaamu alaykum. My marriage took place one year ago. My uncle took my consent for marriage and later appointed my mother as Wakeel (agent). He, my uncle, was the witness for the marriage, along with another uncle. I fully agreed regarding the marriage and have a child now. Today,however, I saw in a book (Qanooni Shariyat) that the Wakeel has no authority to appoint another Wakeel, and that if this happened, it becomes a "Fazooli marriage" and is valid upon consent of the bridegroom. Now I worry very much, as I have doubts about the marriage. Was it valid or not? What will I do now? How should I have given consent?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah and that Muhammad, sallallahu ʻalayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.If you mean that you appointed your uncle to be your Wakeel in accepting your marriage and he, in turn, appointed your mother to be the Wakeel and she carried out the marriage, then this situation is problematic from two aspects:First, that the Wakeel appointed another Wakeel. Scholars held different opinions in this regard; the majority of the scholars forbade it except with the consent of the principal. The Hanafis, on the other hand, allowed it if the original Wakeel was present during the contract session along with the Wakeel whom he appointed.Second, appointing a woman to be Wakeel in marriage. Scholars held different opinions in this regard as well; some of them forbade it, while others held that it is permissible, including the Hanafis.Hence, you come to know that this marriage is valid according to the Hanafis, who held that both actions are permissible. Since the marriage has already been conducted, there is no harm in accepting it as a valid marriage contract according to the Hanafis. If you wish to be on the safe side and renew the marriage contract, then that would be good.Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Wakes up in a state of Janaabah and could not make Ghusl to catch a train or an exam
Question 109288: A man had a wet dream at night and when he woke up, he had no time to perform Ghusl for he had to go out very quickly to catch an exam, a train, or something important like that, and he did not perfor...
Question 109288: A man had a wet dream at night and when he woke up, he had no time to perform Ghusl for he had to go out very quickly to catch an exam, a train, or something important like that, and he did not perform the Morning Prayer. What should he do?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. Whoever sleeps (and thus is detained) from, or forgets an obligatory prayer, it is due upon him to pray it once he gets up or remembers it, due to the statement of the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam: Whoever forgets or sleeps (and thus is detained) from offering an obligatory prayer, its expiation is to pray it once he remembers it. [Muslim] It is well-established among the scholars of Fiqh that this is due immediately.This applies to the one who got up after the due time of prayer was over. But as for him who got up before the due time of prayer was over and was afraid that if he made Ghusl the due time would be over, Ghusl would be due on him even if it should lead him to miss the due time, according to the majority of scholars.Maalik however, is of the opinion that he has to perform dry ablution and pray in the due time.Based on that, let us say:Should missing the train or the exam lead to trouble or harm, and you get up before the due time of the prayer is over, we see that you should perform dry ablution and pray, acting upon the opinion of Maalik .But if you get up after the due time of prayer is over, then, we see that you should make Ghusl and pray, given that Ghusl takes only a few minutes. If you have no time and you are afraid that you may miss your purpose, which might cause you harm, then you may perform dry ablution and pray, depending upon the opinion of the Maaliki scholars of Fiqh, that it is permissible to perform dry ablution (instead of Ghusl) when there is fear of missing the company (on a journey). The author of Mawaahib Al-Jaleel said:Al-Qurtubi said in his Tafseer, "Among the causes of performing dry ablution is the fear of missing the company (on a journey); and this is the predominant opinion; and Allaah The Almighty Knows best."No doubt, missing a train or an exam might be more harmful than missing the company on a journey.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Wakil and Wali
Question 2869:
ASSALAAM U LAKUM MY QUESTION IS....WHAT IS THE ROLE OF THE WAH KIL OR WAHLI IN ISLAM ..HIS DUTIES OBLIGATION (ALLAH FIRST AN FORMOST)AND ROLE FOR THE MUSILIMA...SHUK RANN,,,
Question 2869:
ASSALAAM U LAKUM MY QUESTION IS....WHAT IS THE ROLE OF THE WAH KIL OR WAHLI IN ISLAM ..HIS DUTIES OBLIGATION (ALLAH FIRST AN FORMOST)AND ROLE FOR THE MUSILIMA...SHUK RANN,,,
Answer: Dear Br. J. As-salaamu alaykum. There are many definitions to a wakil and a wali, and all depend on the context they are used in. The wakil can be an agent or an attorney or any person legally appointed to act for another person. the wakil can be asked to solve problems, negotiate deals, represent someone in court or for marriage. As to the Wali, it can be a ruler, a legal guardian, a guardian of the bride, a governor in a Muslim state, etc. As to the role of a Muslim sister, it is too general to answer here. She has roles towards her parents, her husband, her children, her family members, her brothers and sisters, and towards Allah. In the future, please specify the area of the question you need mostly to be answered. Thank you for asking and God knows best. (Source: IslamiCity)
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Wakil and Wali
Question 3469: I have a question concerning the wallia. I would like to know could a sister's walli, or wakeel be changed if she feels he is not acting in her best interest?
Question 3469: I have a question concerning the wallia. I would like to know could a sister's walli, or wakeel be changed if she feels he is not acting in her best interest?
Answer: Dear K. As-salaamu alaykum. First of all, you have to differentiate between a Waly and a Wakeel. A waly (custodian, guardian, keeper, caretaker) is for example the father of a girl/woman while he is alive. Nobody can substitute for him or replace him unless he himself, makes a wakeel (representative, agent) that he appoints to act on his behalf and with his permission. Therefore, while a wakeel can be changed, a waly cannot be changed because a wakeel is something earned while a waly is a fact. Let's make it clearer: if you have a father, you cannot choose another one. On the other hand, if you have a lawyer, you can. Now, if the Waly is not acting to the interest of the woman, then she should talk to him and explain this to him. If all fails, she can take him to court and the Muslim judge has the right to act as a replacement to the Waly after making sure that the Waly is not acting to the best interest of the woman. (Source: IslamiCity)
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Waking up for Fajr to avoid dispraise
Question 105641: Assalaamu alaykum, Scholar. I live in Spain, far from the masjid, and therefore I pray alone at home. As I pray alone at home, I may delay the prayer a little bit more than what they do in masjid. If ...
Question 105641: Assalaamu alaykum, Scholar. I live in Spain, far from the masjid, and therefore I pray alone at home. As I pray alone at home, I may delay the prayer a little bit more than what they do in masjid. If I had to pray at the masjid, I obvously would not be not. Recently, my friend and Shaykh told me that we will revise the Quran through the mobile phone due to me being unable to attend the masjid on a regular basis. This friend is a person who may think good of me, so I was more careful not to oversleep as this would shame me in front of him. When I am alone, I mean before starting the Quran classes, I could sometimes oversleep and miss the Fajr, but because the shaykh may phone me and find me asleep and I fear that this happens, I may even get up earlier or be more careful because if he calls me and find me asleep I would be ashamed in front of him and he may think bad of me. Is this regarder as Shirk (polytheism) taking into consideration that I am more careful when the shaykh may call me than when I am alone?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah and that Muhammad, sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger. What you mentioned is not Shirk; however, we fear that it might involve Riyaa' (ostentation and showing off in order to win people's praise). You should fear Allah, the Exalted, more than you fear anyone else, and you should be more ashamed in front of your Lord than in front of anyone else. Verily, Allah is worthier that one be bashful of Him, more than all people. So your motive to wake up should be your desire to perform the prayer on time in order to earn the pleasure of Allah. Your keenness on waking up on time should not increase because a human being is going to call you, no matter who he is. You should strive in correcting your intention; we fear that your present intention might not be exclusively devoted to Allah. You should strive to devote all your actions exclusively and sincerely to Allah, the Exalted, and aspire only to His pleasure instead of aspiring to be worthy in the eyes of people. Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Waking up Junub (post sex impurity) after dawn
Question 113042: My husband and I often have sexual intercourse late at night, and in most cases, I fail in observing the Fajr prayer. Does this make us sinful, knowing that this is the only time we can have sexual in...
Question 113042: My husband and I often have sexual intercourse late at night, and in most cases, I fail in observing the Fajr prayer. Does this make us sinful, knowing that this is the only time we can have sexual intercourse as we have to wait until our child sleeps? Now, we are in Ramadhaan, if I woke up Junub (a state of Janaabah - post sex impurity), can I perform Ghusl (ritual bathing) and continue my fast?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, the Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. As for the first part of your question, you should know that delaying even a single prayer on purpose until its time has passed is worse than committing adultery, theft, and drinking alcohol according to the consensus of the scholars. (This was reported by Ibn Al-Qayyim at the beginning of his book As-Salah � The Prayer). In fact, it is considered disbelief according to some scholars. Having sexual intercourse late at night does not justify leaving the Fajr prayer intentionally until the morning. What prevents you from performing Ghusl and praying?!If we suppose that you become too exhausted to perform the prayer in spite of trying in every possible way to wake up, then you are not sinful.With regard to the second part of your question, if a person woke up after dawn in a state of Janaabah, his fast is valid as long as he had intended to perform the obligatory fasting from night.'Aa�ishah and Umm Salamah said, "At times, the Messenger of Allaah, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, would get up in the morning in the state of Janaabah after having sexual intercourse with his wives in Ramadan, and not because of wet dreams, and he would then [perform Ghusl and] fast." [Al-Bukhari and Muslim] As for the Hadeeth that was narrated on the authority of by Abu Hurayrah : "Whoever gets up in the morning in a state of Janaabah should not fast", this is either abrogated or referring to what is preferable when the fast is merely a voluntary one. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Waking up late for the Fajr Prayer
Question 110235: Salaam 'Alaykum.I woke up late for fajr this morning and had about ten minutes left. I found that my phone battery had died, hence I didn�t hear my alarm. I went to perform wudoo� and didn�t have my p...
Question 110235: Salaam 'Alaykum.I woke up late for fajr this morning and had about ten minutes left. I found that my phone battery had died, hence I didn�t hear my alarm. I went to perform wudoo� and didn�t have my phone on me to keep track of the time. When I finished, I looked at the time and it said 8:19am and the timetables of the local mosques say sunrise is at 8:18am. Although I looked at the sky while I was doing wudoo� and thought to myself that I still have time because it wasn�t that light outside. Am I sinful?Jazaakum-Allaah Khayran.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. {C}We hope you are not sinful for not waking up to pray on time. The Prophet (saw) said: "There is no negligence in sleep; rather, negligence is when one does not pray until the time of the next prayer comes. Whoever does that (wakes up late), then let him pray it when he wakes up. However, the next day, he should be keen on performing it at its fixed time." [Muslim] Since you took the initiative to perform ablution and tried to pray before the time of the prayer expires, then you have done what you are required to do, and you are not required to do anything else. If you had completed one Rak'ah before the time of the prayer expires, then you have prayed on time; otherwise, its time has already elapsed and it is considered as making up for it. The Prophet (saw) said: "Whoever completes one Rak'ah of Fajr before the sun rises, then he prayed the prayer (i.e. prayed the Fajr prayer on time)." [Ahmad and at-Tirmithi] Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Waking Up Shortly before Sunrise with Wet Dreams
Question 110236: AssalamualaikumIf a person wakes up about 15 minutes before sunrise but in a state of janaabah and when he completes ghusl the time for fajr had elapsed. It takes nearly 10 minutes for him to do ghusl...
Question 110236: AssalamualaikumIf a person wakes up about 15 minutes before sunrise but in a state of janaabah and when he completes ghusl the time for fajr had elapsed. It takes nearly 10 minutes for him to do ghusl maybe because of waswaas etc.Does he come under the heading of delibrately missing prayer and kufr?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. {C}If the person who is in a state of sexual defilement (Junub) wakes up shortly before the sun rises, then he should start by performing Ghusl (ritual bath), even if the sun rises while he is performing it. This is the view of most scholars. Ibn Qudaamah said: "If water is available, but the time of the prayer will expire if one becomes engaged in collecting it and using it, then, according to the view of most scholars, he is not permitted to perform Tayammum (dry ablution), whether he is a resident or traveling. This is because he is able to get and use water, so he is not permitted to perform Tayammum. This is also the case if he does not fear that the time of the prayer will expire. And since purity is a condition, then it is not permissible to leave it out of fear that the time of the prayer will expire, just like in the case of all other conditions." [End of quote] This person who suffers from obsessive�compulsive disorder is not sinful, and he is not considered to be neglecting the prayer if he is delayed in performing Ghusl, because of this disorder, until the time of the prayer has elapsed; this is because the person who suffers from obsessive�compulsive disorder is overcome (has no control over himself), and he does his actions unwillingly. Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen said in Fataawa Noor 'ala Ad-Darb, when speaking about the divorce uttered by a person who suffers from obsessive�compulsive disorder: "Because this word (i.e. divorce) that is said by the tongue from the person who suffers from obsessive�compulsive disorder is said from him unintentionally and without will; rather, he is coerced and compelled by the power of this disorder and lack of impediment. The Prophet (saw) said: 'There is no divorce at the time of coercion.' Hence divorce is not effective from him unless he wills it with a real will and when he is tranquil." Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Waking up then falling asleep without performing the prayer on time
Question 111022: The Messenger of Allaah, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said: "There is no negligence when one is sleeping." Sometimes, I sleep for a long time even though I wake up for seconds so that I know the tim...
Question 111022: The Messenger of Allaah, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said: "There is no negligence when one is sleeping." Sometimes, I sleep for a long time even though I wake up for seconds so that I know the time and then I go back to sleep for some more hours. Therefore, I miss one prayer or more. What is the ruling?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. It is incumbent upon you to wake up at the prescribed time to offer prayer in congregation and to adopt the proper means in order to wake up at the prescribed time of the prayer so as to reach the prayer. Upon waking up, leave the bed quickly so that you do not fall back asleep. Otherwise, you are considered negligent and sinful.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Waleemah could be held even after a period of being married
Question 119847: On the day of my wedding feast (waleemah) my uncle(mother's brother) died, so we cancelled our waleemah. Its one and half year now since that incident and I still didnt arranged the waleemah again.Is ...
Question 119847: On the day of my wedding feast (waleemah) my uncle(mother's brother) died, so we cancelled our waleemah. Its one and half year now since that incident and I still didnt arranged the waleemah again.Is it necessary to have waleemah?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. According to the view of the majority of the scholars organizing a Waleemah (marriage banquet) is a Sunnah and not an obligation, and this is also the opinion we adopt in Islamweb. Moreover, the Waleemah should be organized after the consummation of the marriage according to the view of the majority of the scholars . However, some jurists, like the jurists of the Shaafi�i School of jurisprudence, stated that it is permissible to organize the Waleemah even after a period of being married.Therefore, it is permissible for you to organize the Waleemah of your marriage after a period has passed since your marriage but if you do not wish to do so, then you are permitted to this effect because as we previously explained it is not an obligation to organize the Waleemah.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Waleemah for memorizing Quran
Question 99250: Assalaamu alaykum wa rahmatullaahi wa barkaatuhu. I would like to ask something. I come from a small village which has a large number of Muslims, but their knowledge of the religion is not that strong...
Question 99250: Assalaamu alaykum wa rahmatullaahi wa barkaatuhu. I would like to ask something. I come from a small village which has a large number of Muslims, but their knowledge of the religion is not that strong. They engage in many innovations and can never accept corrections, especially from an 18-year-old like me. There is this ceremony which they perform; they call it Waleemat-ul-Quran. They hold it to celebrate those that have finished reciting, not even memorizing, the entire Quran. In this Waleemah, they do many unacceptable things, like free-mixing of both sexes, singing, and dancing.1- I would like to know if this Waleemah is allowed in Islam.2- I would like to receive advice as to how I can always correct them, because I cannot watch and let my people keep doing Bid'ah (religious innovation).
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah and that Muhammad, sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger. The most likely correct view in this regard is that there is no religious impediment to throwing a banquet upon memorizing the Quran as an expression of gratitude to Allah. Scholars stated that this is permissible provided that such a ceremony is free of prohibited acts such as the ones mentioned; mixing between men and women, singing, and dancing. Al-Khateeb cited in Ruwaat Maalik, and Al-Bayhaqi cited it in Shu'ab Al-'Eemaan, that Ibn 'Umar, may Allah be pleased with him, said, "'Umar memorized Soorah Al-Baqarah in twelve years, and when he completed it, he slaughtered a camel." For more benefit, please refer to fatwa 86532. There is no doubt that enjoining good and forbidding evil is one of the greatest Islamic rituals and that it is the fundamental safety valve of the Muslim community. The callers to Allah and seekers of knowledge should shoulder this duty. It may be obligatory on the Muslim when there is no one else to do this other than him; however, the Islamic conditions in this regard must be observed, the most important of which is adhering to wisdom and weighing the benefits and evils while enjoining good and forbidding evil. Please, refer to fatwa 341197. It is commendable to seek the help of righteous people to help you out in this regard. Allah, The Exalted, says about Prophet Moosa (Moses), may Allah exalt his mention, (what means): {And appoint for me a minister from my family. Aaron, my brother. Increase through him my strength. And let him share my task.} [Quran 20:29-32] We ask Allah to bless you with success in your endeavors and guide your people through you. You should bear in mind the great rewards of this good deed that draws the doer closer to his Lord. The Prophet, sallallahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said, "By Allah, if a single person is guided by Allah through you, it will be better for you than the most precious camels." [Al-Bukhaari and Muslim] Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Wali of Allah
Question 103648: A friend says she is a gifted person which in Islam people call it Karamat al-Awliyah and it is part of Aqeedah to believe in such people. She claims she knows the Hidden others cannot and she can see...
Question 103648: A friend says she is a gifted person which in Islam people call it Karamat al-Awliyah and it is part of Aqeedah to believe in such people. She claims she knows the Hidden others cannot and she can see just what Allah allows her to see. She says people like her exist. My question: What is Karamat al-Awliyah in Islam? Is there any gifted person in Islam? And if there is, who are they? Is there any evidence in the Qur'an or Hadith? Please enlighten me the answers with proofs from both Qur'an and authentic Hadith. May Allah bless our Prophet Muhammad (Sallallahu Alaihi wa Sallam). May Allah keep us all on the Haq. Ameen.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.
As to the Sharee’ah concept of the words “Wali-u-Allah”, we state that every righteous and believing person is considered a Wali of Allah. This concept is not limited to somebody or some people, and a Karama (a form of miracle) is not a condition for one to be a Wali.
Allah Says (what means): {Unquestionably, [for] the allies of Allah there will be no fear concerning them, nor will they grieve. Those who believed and were fearing Allah. For them are good tidings in the worldly life and in the Hereafter. No change is there in the words of Allah. That is what is the great attainment.} [Quran 10: 62-63]
A Wali is the one who adheres to the teachings of the Quran and the Sunnah, fulfills obligations, and does more optional good deeds so that one can attain the rank of piety.
Al-Ghayb (the unseen) is not known except by Allah, The Exalted, alone. Al-Ghayb is of two kinds: absolute and restricted.
The absolute Ghayb includes everything that Allah Prevents others from knowing.
The restricted Ghayb: It is known to some people. This means it is also a form of absolute Ghayb to others.
This restricted Ghayb is gained through Ilham (inspiration of the heart) and may be related by reliable people or through scientific knowledge; e.g. a woman's pregnancy (if she is pregnant), the contents of the sea bottom. Some knowledge from soothsayers may be accurate but it is forbidden.
As for the absolute Ghayb, it is known only by Allah, The Exalted.
Allah Says (what means):
• {Say, "None in the heavens and earth knows the unseen except Allah, and they do not perceive when they will be resurrected."} [Quran 27: 65]
• {And with Him are the keys of the unseen; none knows them except Him.} [Quran 6: 59]
Scholars state that one who claims knowing the absolute Ghayb is a disbeliever, since it constitutes a contradiction with the Divine Revelation.
Maybe, this woman deals in soothsaying, so one has to avoid all who deal with fortune-telling, if that is known for certain.
Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Wali of Muslim American lady has long phone talks with her
Question 122535: Two years ago my father became the guardian (Wali) of a Muslim American lady. She talks a lot with him by phone and does not always stick to necessary questions, and does not speak with a firm voice, ...
Question 122535: Two years ago my father became the guardian (Wali) of a Muslim American lady. She talks a lot with him by phone and does not always stick to necessary questions, and does not speak with a firm voice, but as if she is speaking with a girl. This situation causes my mother a lot of problems. I want to know the nature of the relation between the Wali and the woman who is under his guardianship.
Answer: Praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds; and blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all his Family and Companions. If the guardianship of your father over this woman is limited to helping her in her business and protecting her from any harm that could affect her life, so he will be rewarded for that. As the Prophet Muhammad (Blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: "Muslim is the brother of another Muslim, he should not oppress nor should be hand him over to evil. Whoever fulfills his Muslim brother's needs, Allah will fulfill his needs. Whoever removes the trouble of his brother, Allah will remove one of his troubles on the Day of Resurrection and whoever covers up the fault of a Muslim, Allah will cover up his fault on the Day of Resurrection." [al-Bukhari and Muslim]. If this guardianship is limited to becoming her guardian during marriage, this is lawful since her parents and agnatic relatives next-of kin are not Muslims. But in both cases this man is alien to her, so he should limit his relation to her to the minimum necessary and avoid long talks with her as the Prophet Muhammad (Blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: " the Satan floats inside the body of a man along with the circulation of blood." [Narrated by al-Bukhari & Muslim ]. This woman should learn the Islamic morals and decencies as concerned talking to alien men. She should not soften her voice too much. We would like to advise you father to be ware of the Satan as the latter might sometimes influence the person through obedience to righteous deeds by pushing him to commit a greater sin. So, your father should avoid everything that could lead to such a tumult. Allah Says (Interpretation of meaning): (O you who believe! Follow not the footsteps of Satan and whosover follows the footsteps of Satan then verily he (Satan) commands indecency and wicked deeds). [24:21]. Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Wali of Muslimah if her parents are kuffaar
Question 92503: Assalaammu'alaikum,
I come from a muslim family and was brought up with Islamic faith. Although, I have been
through a stage in my life which I call the "dark stage" of my life, in which I was i...
Question 92503: Assalaammu'alaikum,
I come from a muslim family and was brought up with Islamic faith. Although, I have been
through a stage in my life which I call the "dark stage" of my life, in which I was involved
with "jahiliyah" practices for some years (yes, those irresponsible and sinful acts).
Alhamdulillah Allah has blessed me with guidance and brought me to His straight path
again. Since that time, I have been having a relationship with a christian girlfriend, who
Alhamdulillah has accepted Islam just recently, by Allah's will. We plan to be wedded soon
after we are settled. One problem is that she comes from a devout Christian family, not to
mention her father being a christian priest. Ever since her family found out about our
involvement, they have tried almost everything to part us, we haven't told them about my
girlfriend's conversion though. Right now, our relationship has reached a point where she is
willing to oppose her family and runaway from them eventually. Even though we know it
will be hard to go through, my girlfriend and I really love each other. As I understand, the
Islamic law requires that in marriage, a woman should be accompanied by a "wali", which
to my knowledge, should come from her family. My first question, can our plan to marry
without her family's consent be in accordance with Islamic law?
And second, if it can, who can be her "wali?", since not one of her family member agree
with our relationship.
Thank you, assalaammu'alaikum.
Answer:
Praise be to Allah.
Al-hamdu lillaah.
First, I offer thanks to Allaah for his grace in having guided you to the path of truth after experiencing a
dark journey through 'jahiliyyah', a journey into ignorance and meaninglessness. Allaah guides to his truth
whomever he wills. At this point of your life, as an expression of gratitude for Allaah's blessing, you
should carry out your duties towards him and desist from the actions that gain his wrath. In fact, Allaah,
at this point in your life, must take priority over everything else. You further ought to make up for what
you missed in the previous part of your life, to double your efforts in performing worship and to haste in
doing good deeds.
Secondly, since this lady in question has converted to Islam, thanks to Allaah, none of her kaafir family
members can act as a guardian (wali) of her interests; no kaafir can act in this capacity over a Muslim. If
there is a Muslim with some authority in your area over the affairs of the Muslim community, then he can
act in this capacity, based on the Prophet's
(peace be upon him) hadeeth:
"No marriage contract can be concluded without the presence of a Wali. A Sultan (authority figure)
can act as a Wali for those without one." (see Ibn Majah and Imam Ahmad, Hadith number 1880; also
in Salih al-Jaami', hadeeth number 7556.)
If there is no authoritative Muslim person, then one should refer to the community Muslim leader or any
Muslim who is just ('aadil), respected, and of high character, such as the director of the Islamic center or
its imam, to conclude the marriage contract of this sister, with her consent.
(Source: IslamQA)
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Wali of woman who converted to Islam
Question 117883: There is a Hindu girl whom I was in haram relationship with. Allaah guided us and so we repented; she accepted Islam and we then married with the consent of my parents. Since her parents did not accep...
Question 117883: There is a Hindu girl whom I was in haram relationship with. Allaah guided us and so we repented; she accepted Islam and we then married with the consent of my parents. Since her parents did not accepted Islam (and they also did not know the condition of the religion of her daughter then), my maternal uncle became the Wali (legal guardian) of this girl and gave her to me in marriage. (My wife has been known to my family since childhood.) After a year, her parents agreed to a marriage (Indian Special Marriage act � in which both are supposed to exercise their religion without any compulsion of religious conversion), and so we did a registered marriage in the court. The marriage was conducted at one of the Islamic Centre in India, but since we did not found any suitable judge, in addition to our ignorance, my maternal uncle, who is (now) a practicing Muslim, became her Wali. Alhamdulillah, now, both I and my wife are striving to be on the path of the Salaf (pious predecessors), but our different ways from the majority of the Muslims around us is making our in-laws furious towards us. I am wondering whether our marriage was valid given that we had my maternal uncle as her Wali? Do we have to solemnize our marriage again? What is your advice regarding her parents, who accept me as their son-in-law but do not accept Islam and advise me to shave my beard for social acceptance in their community, citing examples of many Muslims around? These questions are bothering me and have made me suspicious about my religion. Please help.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger. All praise be to Allaah, The Exalted, for granting you guidance and for guiding your wife to Islam. We implore Him to bless you both with steadfastness and adherence to the straight path and safeguard you from misguidance and temptations, what is apparent and what is hidden thereof. You should know that if your maternal uncle acted as the Wali of this girl with her consent, then the marriage is valid, especially given that you stated in the question that the marriage was conducted in the Islamic center, which legally acts in the stead of the Islamic court. Scholars underlined that when a non-Muslim woman embraces Islam and she has no Muslim Wali and there is no Muslim ruler to act as her Wali in the marriage contract, then any Muslim man may act as her Wali in the marriage contract with her consent. Ibn Qudaamah wrote, "If the woman has no Wali and there is no Muslim ruler to act as her Wali in the marriage contract, then it has been narrated on the authority of Imaam Ahmad ibn Hanbal that any trustworthy Muslim man can act as her Wali in the marriage contract with her permission." [Al-Mughni] Hence, you are not obliged to renew the marriage contract. For more benefit, please refer to fataawa 88488and 86524.As for dealing with your community, you should keenly and kindly try to call the members of your community to Islam and should show compassion for them. The believer is enjoined to adhere to two religious obligations, namely, abidance by Truth and being merciful to people. As for your wife's parents, we advise you to treat them kindly and graciously in order to encourage them to embrace Islam. However, no created being should be obeyed in what constitutes disobedience to the Creator. It is impermissible for you to obey them in shaving your beard; it is prohibited to shave the beard. It has been authentically reported that the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said, "There should no obedience to a created being in disobedience of the Creator." You should not pay any attention to their claim about the need for social acceptance. Finally, we do not know what made you suspicious about your religion; rather, you should feel the opposite and have confidence in it. Allaah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Wali Recants of His Approval for Daughter to Marry
Question 121783: If the Wali (guardian of the woman) says to a given man: "I give you my daughter in marriage". And before the man expresses his consent to the proposal, the Wali recants his offer. Is the offer bindin...
Question 121783: If the Wali (guardian of the woman) says to a given man: "I give you my daughter in marriage". And before the man expresses his consent to the proposal, the Wali recants his offer. Is the offer binding, anyway or is the woman now free to marry another man?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.
A marriage contract is not valid unless it meets some conditions. One of the conditions is that marriage should start with proposal from one side and acceptance (or approval) from the other side. Proposal or acceptance from only one party is not sufficient. For example, if a Wali (guardian of a girl) says: “I give you my daughter in marriage”, and the other person (fiancé) does not accept it, or if the proposing man says: “marry me with your daughter" and the Wali does not accept it; then, in both cases the marriage contract is not completed. The proposal of marriage and its acceptance are compulsory conditions. They should follow one another immediately. A long delay between the proposal and its acceptance is not acceptable and the duration of the period is defined according to the customs and traditions in each area. Therefore, the woman whose Wali says to a person, “I marry you to this woman” and the person does not express his acceptance of the offer, then that woman remains single not married.
Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Walima.
Question 2886: Assalaam Alaikum,
My question is about Walima. First question
does the woman have to cook for her walima
and can it be catered?
When hosting the Walima for guest that are
Muslim and Non...
Question 2886: Assalaam Alaikum,
My question is about Walima. First question
does the woman have to cook for her walima
and can it be catered?
When hosting the Walima for guest that are
Muslim and Non-Muslim can there be music?
If the Walima was held in a hall would the
guest have to separated, men on one side and
women on the other?
Answer: Dear Sr. I. As-salaamu alaykum. The bride doesn't have to cook for her wedding. Food can be catered, or friends and family members can help bring dishes. As to your second question, since weddings are meant to bring happiness and joy, and since the attendees cannot be always controlled in the presence of Music which would lead people from the opposite sex to dance in public (which is Haram), then in order to avoid this, men and women should be separated. Women can sing and dance on their own if they wish to. Thank you for asking and God knows best. (Source: IslamiCity)
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WALIMA.
Question 44907: Assalaamualaikum. I recently had my mahr and Alhamdulillah now married to my wife. At current we live in different countries but I visit home regularly and see her often (She still lives with her pare...
Question 44907: Assalaamualaikum. I recently had my mahr and Alhamdulillah now married to my wife. At current we live in different countries but I visit home regularly and see her often (She still lives with her parents and likewise with me). Due to my work being temporarily overseas, there are some work constraints and forcefully we have had to delay our ceremony (Walima) to approximately a year's time from now. My situation is that my parents have set strict guidelines/conditions upon my wife and I that we must oblige to until the walima. Now you might know that in some cultures, socially the man cannot have sexual intercourse nor express intimacy to his wife until after the ceremony (Because apparently it is disgraceful upon the parents if their daughter happens to get pregnant before the wilima, even though the mahr has been done). For that reason I am not allowed to share the bed with my wife when she visits my home and neither are we allowed to preform any sexual acts till after the walima. This puzzles us very much because as far as we understand, in front of Allah we are officially married, and the ceremony is simply a celebration, nothing more. Now although my parents don't mind me taking my wife out for dinner, and giving her hugs when we meet etc my wife and I both find it very uncomfortable that we have to refrain ourselves from our intimate desires for each other just because of our parent's rulings. Furthermore it is quite disturbing to tell you the truth because we feel like we aren't married at all. My father is hard to talk to and stubborn when discussing this issue. I always seem to get told off at the end of the discussion when I start the conversation relating to this issue, he holds his grounds very firm about this particular topic. What can you advise me? I also wonder sometimes if I am sinful for not fulfilling my wife's desires and vice versa. How do I overcome this issue when my parents are hard to speak to? Am I supposed to wait till after the Walima in Islam? Should I just do what I like from behind my parents knowledge or would that be sinful too? May you please provide me with any hadith or verse from the Quran that you might find helpful next time I approach my father (In Arabic or English), he is a very religious man. Jazakallahu Kheir!
Answer: Bismillahir-rahmanir-rahim.
Brother Muslim,
ISLAMICALLY, WALIMA is a SUNNA tradition and a way to make persons happy. It is not FARD or obligatory.
Wassalamu alaikum. (Source: Islamicity)
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Walk in Place With Pictures of...
Question 777: My dear Imam,
Do you think that it is against Islam if I walk in a room
with images of pigs on the walls?
Please answer me fast because it is such a terrible question
for a muslim like m...
Question 777: My dear Imam,
Do you think that it is against Islam if I walk in a room
with images of pigs on the walls?
Please answer me fast because it is such a terrible question
for a muslim like me.
Answer: Dear Br. As-Salaamu Alaykum. No, it is not against Islam to walk in a place where there are pictures of pigs on the wall. Thank you for asking (Source: IslamiCity)
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Walking
with shoes in the mosque
Question 94392: Is
it true that Imaam Muhammad ibn �Abd al-Wahhaab said that walking with
shoes in the mosque is something which is allowed in Islam, and that
visiting graves is haraam? Please advise us, may Allaa...
Question 94392: Is
it true that Imaam Muhammad ibn �Abd al-Wahhaab said that walking with
shoes in the mosque is something which is allowed in Islam, and that
visiting graves is haraam? Please advise us, may Allaah reward you with
good.
Answer:
Praise be to Allah.
Where
did you get this from? We tell you that this is a big lie.
Imaam
Muhammad ibn �Abd al-Wahhaab (may Allaah have mercy on him) was a man of
knowledge, a scholar. He did not say these things. What he urged people to
do, as is written in his books, is to turn to Allaah when they pray, and
to be focused in their prayer, in obedience to the words of Allaah
(interpretation of the meaning):
�Successful
indeed are the believers.
Those
who offer their Salaah (prayers) with all solemnity and full
submissiveness� [al-Mu�minoon 23:1-2]
-
because the person who is praying must acknowledge the greatness of the
One before Whom he is standing. So he should not move too much, as it says
in the report: �If the heart is focused then the limbs will be still.�
Some scholars attributed this to the Prophet
(peace and blessings of
Allaah be upon him), but al-Haafiz ibn Rajab al-Hanbali said: The
Messenger
(peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) did not say
this, and there is no saheeh isnaad reporting that he said, �If the
heart is focused then the limbs will be still�- even though the meaning
is sound. This is the saying of one of the salaf. And this is what
Muhammad ibn �Abd al-Wahhaab said.
With
regard to walking with shoes in the mosque and his saying that this is
allowed in Islam, this is not correct. Muhammad ibn �Abd al-Wahhaab did
not say that walking with shoes in the mosque is something which is
allowed in Islam. He said the same as was narrated in the ahaadeeth, which
is that the Prophet
(peace and blessings of Allaah be upon
him) said: �When any one of you comes to the mosque, let him look at his
shoes, and if he sees anything dirty on them, let him wipe them, because
they may be purified by rubbing them with dust.� This refers to shoes
and to the mosque at that time [which was simple and unfurnished].
However, if the mosque is furnished [with carpets and the like], we should
keep it clean from shoes and not enter wearing shoes, lest we make the
place dirty by bringing in something unclean on our shoes. This was
indicated by some of the scholars and is part of what Shaykh Muhammad ibn
�Abd al-Wahhaab said. He did not say that it is allowed in Islam to
enter the mosque with shoes.
With
regard to it being haraam to visit graves, he did not say this at all.
Imaam Muhammad ibn �Abd al-Wahhaab followed the ahaadeeth, and the
hadeeth says: ��I used to forbid you to visit graves, but now [you
should] visit them, for they are a reminder of the Hereafter.� (Narrated
by Muslim, no. 977). And he (may Allaah have mercy on him) said to those
who visit graves that when they visit them, they must abide by the
etiquette of Islam and make du�aa� as the Prophet
(peace and
blessings of Allaah be upon him) taught his companions: when you enter the
graveyard, say: �Peace be upon you, dwellers of these abodes, believers
and Muslims. We will, whenever Allaah wills, join you. May Allaah have
mercy on those of you who were first (to die) and those who were last. I
beg of Allaah salvation for us and for you. O Allaah, deprive us not of
reward (similar to theirs) and lead us not astray after they are gone, and
forgive us and them.� (Saheeh Muslim,
no. 974, 975)
This
is what the ahaadeeth say, and Muhammad ibn �Abd al-Wahhaab affirmed
this in his books. But what he said was: People should not travel
specifically to visit graves. This is the view of Ibn �Abd al-Wahhaab,
in accordance with the hadeeth of Abu Sa�eed in al-Saheehayn,
where it says that the Prophet
(peace and blessings of Allaah be upon
him) said:
�Journeys
should not be undertaken to visit (any place) except three: al-Masjid
al-Haraam [in Makkah], this mosque of mine [in Madeenah] and al-Masjid
al-Aqsaa [in al-Quds/Jerusalem].� (Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 2/50;Muslim,
827; al-Nasaa�i, 1/277-287). He said: This hadeeth indicates that
it is not permissible to travel specifically to visit graves, but if you
visit them in your own city, for example, or those that do not require
travel specifically to visit them, then this is OK. The Messenger
(peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) used to visit graves, such as
the graveyard of al-Baqee�, and he
(peace and blessings of Allaah
be upon him)visited the
graves of the shuhadaa� (martyrs) and made du�aa� for them. This is
something which is well known. What is forbidden is travelling
specifically to visit graves. This is something which we should not do,
according to the hadeeth of Abu Sa�eed. Hence al-Qaadi �Iyaad
al-Maaliki said: It is not permissible to travel specifically to visit
graves. This was also the view of Ibn Rajab al-Hanbali, Ibn �Aqeel, Ibn
Battah and a group of scholars. All that was said to you is not correct,
as we have explained to you. And Allaah knows best.
(Source: IslamQA)
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Walking Downstairs and Upstairs 5 Times a Day to Go to Mosque
Question 110179: I live in the fifth floor of our building and there is no elevator. This means that I need to walk downstairs and upstairs 5 times per day in order to go the mosque. Can this (absence of elevator) be ...
Question 110179: I live in the fifth floor of our building and there is no elevator. This means that I need to walk downstairs and upstairs 5 times per day in order to go the mosque. Can this (absence of elevator) be an excuse for not going to the mosque?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.First of all, we say that the ruling on congregational prayer is an issue of difference of opinion among the scholars, some of them are not of the view that it is an obligation and some of them are of the opinion that it is an obligation in the mosque. Some scholars are of the view that the congregational prayer is an obligation even if it is held at a place other than the mosque. We have already mentioned their view in previous Fataawa.Since you write to us in Arabic sometimes, so we refer you to some Fataawa in our Arabic site, which are as follows: 38639 and 191365.Nonetheless, there is no difference of opinion that the prayer in the mosque is better for men as one gets the reward of congregational prayer, the reward of walking many steps to the mosque, waiting for the prayer, and the angels seek forgiveness for the person, and other virtues that are mentioned about congregational prayer in the mosque.However, there is no doubt that walking upstairs and downstairs five times a day involves some hardship especially for the elderly or those who suffer from diseases in their legs or knees.Therefore, if there is a considerable hardship, then there is no harm in staying behind from the congregational prayer in the mosque but one should be keen on performing it in congregation at home, as the reward of congregational prayer is not specific to the mosque. The jurists who are of the view that congregational prayer is an obligation in the mosque mentioned a number of excuses that make it permissible not to attend the congregational prayer. These excuses revolve around physical or financial hardship. For more benefit on congregational prayer, please refer to Fataawa 295357, 292729, 111020, 365824, 89364, 216331, and 362092, in our English site. Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Walking in front of someone while praying
Question 92426: Is it permissible to walk across in front of someone who is praying Salaat?
Question 92426: Is it permissible to walk across in front of someone who is praying Salaat?
Answer:
Praise be to Allah.
It is not permissible to walk across in front of someone who is praying, and it is a great sin, as the
Prophet (peace be upon him) said (approximate translation of meaning is):
"If the one crossing in front of a praying person knew what sin is upon him, it would be better for him
to wait forty than walk across." Abu Al-Nadhr (one of the narrators of the hadith) said: I don't know
whether he said forth days, months, or years. (Bukhari)
Imam Al-Bukhari (R) has named the chapter in which he brings the hadith as follows: Chapter on the sin
of walking across in front of a praying person.
When the praying person is the leader in the prayer or praying alone, and he has a sutrah( some object
like a peice of wood) in front of him, then walking across in between him and his sutrah is not permitted.
However, if he is praying without a sutrah, it is not permissible to walk across in between him and his
place of prostration. For the followers (in a jamaa'ah prayer), the leader's sutrah is enough for them.
Based on this, it is permissible to walk through in front of a row if need be.
And Allah knows best.
(Source: IslamQA)
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Walking in the graveyard while wearing shoes
Question 111721: Assalamualaikum, Dear Sheikh, I have 2 questions for you: 1. I have seen in some fiqh books that one must remove his shoes when entering the graveyard. What the ruling concerning this matter? 2. Some ...
Question 111721: Assalamualaikum, Dear Sheikh, I have 2 questions for you: 1. I have seen in some fiqh books that one must remove his shoes when entering the graveyard. What the ruling concerning this matter? 2. Some people say that during prayer, if one closes his eyes for gaining concentration, this has no effect on the prayer. What the ruling concerning this matter? May Allah reward you, Wassalamualaikum.
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. It is confirmed that the Prophet (saw) saw a man walking between graves while wearing leather shoes, and he (saw) ordered him to take them off. [Abu Daawood and others] However, the majority of the scholars are of the view that it is permissible to walk in the graveyard while wearing shoes, and they interpreted the narration to mean that he (saw) ordered the man to do so, because such shoes were only worn by rich people, so, he (saw) disliked him doing so while inside the graveyard. Nonetheless, some scholars are of the view that it is disliked to walk in the graveyard while wearing shoes. Different scholars have different opinions on this issue, however, in Islamweb we adopt the opinion that it is permissible to walk in the graveyard while wearing shoes. With regards your second question, please refer to Fatwa 82461.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Walking with a Female Christian Friend to Class
Question 101340: This past Thursday, January 25th, a Christian missionary lady recognized me whom I spoke last year twice. She wanted to talk with me. However, I was walking to my class with a Christian friend of mine...
Question 101340: This past Thursday, January 25th, a Christian missionary lady recognized me whom I spoke last year twice. She wanted to talk with me. However, I was walking to my class with a Christian friend of mine who was tagging along to show me where is my class located. I told the Christian missionary lady that I have to go to my class. My friend saw the Christian missionary lady and asked me if I know her? I told her "Yeah," but that's all. My Questions:-Is it appropriate for me to ask my Christian friend or to ask a Muslim female to walk with me every Thursdays to my class?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. First of all, you should not befriend a Christian woman (or girl) as Allah says (what means): {You will not find a people who believe in Allah and the Last Day having affection for those who oppose Allah and His Messenger, even if they were their fathers or their sons or their brothers or their kindred. Those - He has decreed within their hearts faith and supported them with spirit from Him. And We will admit them to gardens beneath which rivers flow, wherein they abide eternally. Allah is pleased with them, and they are pleased with Him - those are the party of Allah. Unquestionably, the party of Allah - they are the successful.} [Quran 58:22] Moreover, the Prophet (saw) forbade us from befriending other than Muslims and mixing with other than pious people, as he (saw) said: "A man follows the religion of his friend; so each one of you should examine whom he takes as a friend." [Ahmad, Al-Haakim and others] 'Awn Al-Ma�bood reads (about the interpretation of the above Hadeeth): "'� follows the religion of his friend', means he will adopt the custom, way and conduct of his friend. '� so each one of you should examine', means should contemplate and reflect. '� whom he takes as a friend', so if he is pleased with his religion and conduct, he befriends him, otherwise he should avoid him, because a person is affected by the behaviors and character of others." [End of quote] Another Hadeeth reads, "Do not befriend except a believer." [Abu Daawood and At-Tirmithi; Al-Albani classified it as Hassan] 'Awn Al-Ma�bood reads (commenting on the above Hadeeth): "It means, a complete believer. It could also mean that it is prohibited to befriend non-Muslims and hypocrites, because befriending them is harmful for one�s religion...." [End of quote] On the other hand, there is nothing wrong in befriending a righteous Muslim woman and asking her to accompany you to the class or anywhere else. Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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Want Abortion Due to Wife's Health Problems
Question 124022: Asalam O alaikum. sir My question is i have 5 daughters and i dont any more childern. but my wife is again pregnant. even she has medical issue also. its only one week we just come to know. so if i wa...
Question 124022: Asalam O alaikum. sir My question is i have 5 daughters and i dont any more childern. but my wife is again pregnant. even she has medical issue also. its only one week we just come to know. so if i want her to abort the pregnancy. what the Quran say. will it be a murder ? . please answer in detail. jazak Allah khair. My wife is saying it will be murder if i abort like this.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. You did not mention to us the age of the fetus in the womb of his mother, because knowing this affects the ruling. When the fetus reaches four months, the soul is breathed into it, and in this case, it is forbidden to abort it without a dire need, according to the agreement of the jurists. At this stage, it is undoubtedly killing a soul.As regards before the soul is breathed into it, there is a difference of opinion among the jurists about its ruling. The most preponderant opinion in our view is that it is not permissible to abort it even at the Nutfah (sperm-drop) stage. Although it is not a real killing in this case, yet it is still considered a transgression (against the fetus).Moreover, you did not clarify to us your wife's health problem. If it is a serious matter that threatens the mother's life if the pregnancy continues, and specialized doctors testify to this, then it is permissible to abort the fetus even after the soul has been breathed into it. However, if the disease does not reach this level of seriousness, but pregnancy can cause harm to her, then there is nothing wrong in acting according to the concession of the scholars who allow abortion before the soul is breathed into it for a valid excuse.Nonetheless, if her health problem is simple, then it is not permissible for you to abort it. This is the best course of action in order to be on the safe side and acquitted from sin.It should be noted that a Muslim should not refrain from having abundant children because, in this case, he deprives himself from much goodness of this world and the Hereafter. Having an abundant number of children is something that Allah stated to be a favor from Him upon some of His Slaves as He Says (what means): {….And We helped you with wealth and children and made you more numerous in man-power.} [Quran 17:6]Additionally, the Prophet (saw) urged us to have an abundant number of children. Ma'qil ibn Yasaar, may Allaah be pleased with him, narrated that a man came to the Prophet (saw) and said: "I found a woman of honourable lineage and who is beautiful, but she does not give birth to children (infertile). Should I marry her?" He (saw) said: 'No'. The man later returned again (asking about the same issue), and the Prophet again prohibited him (from marrying her). The man returned again for the third time, and the Prophet (saw) said: 'Marry women who are loving and very prolific, for I shall outnumber the nations (on the Day of Resurrection) by you (your abundant number).'"For more benefit on abortion, please refer to Fataawa 278191, 276748 and 87649.Allah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)