Answer:

Praise be to Allah.

Vaccinations against meningitis do not invalidate the fast. There is nothing wrong with that, but if it is possible to give the injection at night, that is more on the safe side. And Allaah is the Source of strength. May Allaah send blessings and peace upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon his family and companions.
(Source: IslamQA)

Answer:

Praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all his Family and Companions.  Vaginal discharges nullify the Wudu.  So, after these discharges you need to refresh your Wudu.  As for applying Henna, it is lawful during menses.  It is also lawful during period of purity provided it does not leave a layer that prevents water from reaching the skin.  So, henna product should be removed before Wudu or Ghusl as it prevents water from being in direct contact with the skin, which is a condition for the validity of both Wudu and Ghusl.

Allah knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.

As for the chronic vaginal discharge, if this discharge continues, she should perform ablution at the beginning of the prescribed time of prayer and renew it if the prayer is delayed. She should wash her private parts, apply something absorbent to them, and then make ablution and perform the obligatory prayer and perform supererogatory prayers as much as she wishes.

Her ablution does not become nil if the discharge continues during the prayer. She should, however, repeat the ablution before praying in another prescribed prayer time. But if she combines two prayers, then she can perform both of them with one ablution only. If there is a usual pause in this discharge in which she can make ablution and perform prayer, then she should wait to that pause and perform the prayer during it. But if she fears the prescribed time of prayer will pass, then she should perform the prayer as mentioned above.

As for Tawaaf (Circumambulation of the Ka�bah) and Sa'y, she is not obliged to be in the state of ceremonial purity (ablution) for Sa'y. But she needs to be in the state of ceremonial purity to perform Tawaaf. So, the same rule mentioned in the case of Salah (prayer) is applied in regard to performing Tawaaf.

If the pause of vaginal discharge is sufficient to perform ablution and Tawaaf, then she should make ablution before Tawaaf. If she is afraid this pause will not be long enough to perform Tawaaf, then she should make ablution and if the discharge starts, she takes care of herself, and performs Tawaaf. The continuation of the discharge does not have any effect on Tawaaf. Her rule is the same as the one of the person who has chronic ritual impurity.

Allah Says (what means): {So fear Allah as much as you are able.} [Quran 64:16]

Allah also Says (what means): {Allah does not charge a soul except [with that within] its capacity.} [Quran 2:286]

If this discharge is coming from the womb, then it is pure; i.e. she is not obliged to change her clothes. But the ablution is void.

If the discharge is from the bladder, then it is impure. So, she should wash the portion of the clothes affected with it.

If she does not find any object to clean her clothes from impurity and does not have any other clothes, then she can pray in those clothes and the prayer is valid. The same rule is applied for a person whose body becomes impure.

It should be noticed that all the mentioned rules are common for a pregnant woman and others who are facing similar problems.

Allah knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.

Any discharges from any private part of the man or woman nullify ablution, and the prayer is not valid except after renewing ablution.

So, if these vaginal discharges come out of the vagina, then its ruling is the same as the ruling of Madhi (prostatic fluid) and urine or other discharges from one of the private parts. Therefore, you should wash the place that is stained by it in the same manner you wash urine, and you should do ablution again in the same manner that you do after you urinate.

Allah knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger. 

We believe that the Fataawa 82539, 91930, 107530 and 136797 which we already referred you to are enough to clear your confusion. We explained to you that there are two kinds of discharges. One is released from the bladder and it is impure, and the other is released from the vagina and it is pure according to the view we believe to be the most valid one. If you do not know where those discharges are released from, then the presumption is that a discharge from the vagina or the anus is impure.

Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen said, citing the evidence of the scholars who consider the discharges of the vagina to be impure: "They rationalized that everything that exits the vagina or anus is presumably impure, unless there is evidence that it is pure." [End of quote]

If the impurity occurs frequently, and you get it once or more than once a day, then it is considered a constant invalidation of ritual purity and it is excused according to some jurists due to hardship. Hence, according to them, it is not compulsory to change the pad or the clothes, or to purify it or to purify the body; Ad-Dardeer from the Maaliki School, said in his commentary to Khaleel ibn Is-haaq's Mukhtasar: "What is difficult is excused, such as constant incontinence; any impurity that is difficult to avoid is excused for the prayer and for entering the mosque � and what is meant by incontinence is: what exits by itself involuntarily, such as urine, Mathy (prostatic fluid), semen and feces, that exits by itself from the private parts or anus; it is excused and it is not compulsory to wash it if it happens even once a day. " [End of quote]

Therefore, you may act according to this opinion, especially if you suffer from obsessive whispers regarding purity.

Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer:

All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. First of all, we advise you to avoid such matters that you were doing in Ramadan with your husband and avoid foreplay and all what may stir your desire while fasting. However, it appears that you are not obligated to make up those days because the white sticky liquid that comes out during foreplay and at the beginning of sexual desire is called Mathy, and if it comes out it does not invalidate fasting according to the Fatwa that we adopt here in Islamweb. For more benefit, please refer to Fataawa 84129 and 83622. Moreover, if we presume that these are nothing but vaginal discharges because of pregnancy, then this does not invalidate fasting according to the agreement of the scholars . Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.

Ghusl (ritual bath) is a must for one who has had a discharge of Mani (Sperm) owing to stimulation while asleep or awake.

Abu Sa’eed Al-Khudri reported that he heard the Prophet (saw) saying: “(Ghusl (ritual bath) is obligatory after ejaculation of sperm.” Umm Salamah reported that Umm Sulaym said. “O Messenger of Allah, Allah is not ashamed of the truth. Does a woman have to perform Ghusl if she has a wet dream?” He (saw) replied: “Yes, if she notices the discharge.” [Al-Bukhari and Muslim].

Allah knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: Praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds; and blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all his Family and Companions. There is no harm to have sexual intercourse with the pregnant woman if it does not cause any physical harm to her. Muslim scholars have agreed on this rule.Allah knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: Bismillahir-rhmanir-rahim. Sister, Valentine day has NOTHING TO DO WITH ISLAM RELIGION. But Islam religion does encourage us to be friendly to others, so nothing wrong with your son to comply with his school instruction. Wasalamu alaikum.
(Source: islamicity)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger. A down payment is to buy something and pay part of its price. If the transaction is completed, then the paid amount of money will be regarded as part of the price. If the transaction is not completed, the seller will take this amount as a gift from the buyer. Abu 'Abdullaah (Ahmad) said, "Down payment is that a man buys a camel for one hundred dinars, so he gives the seller two dinars as down payment and says, 'If I do not buy the camel, the two dinars will be yours.� It is said � and Allaah Knows best � that a man buys something and pays a dirham, or less or more, to the seller, saying 'If I do not buy it, the dirham is yours.�" [Ibn Maajah]Scholars did not mention a specified time � that is impermissible to exceed � for this sale under Sharee'ah. This period is subject to the agreement of the involved parties. After defining the down payment sale, the Hanbali scholar Al-Mardaawi said, "�whether there was timing or not�it is said that down payment is to say, 'If I take the sold item and bring you the remaining money on such and such a date, otherwise it (the down payment) is yours.�"Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. There are many reasons for divorce; for it was prescribed for the need of the spouses. We can summarize such reasons as follows:1-    If the wife is not a righteous or a well-mannered Muslim woman, or both.2-    The husband�s inability to fulfill his wife�s rights over him duly; such as providing for her and so on.3-    The husband�s total repulsion and sexual disinterest in his wife due to the lack of pleasure in intercourse and so on.4-    The wife�s ill-conduct, contempt and arrogant attitude towards her husband.5-    Due to the order of a parent as long as it was with no intransigence and provided that it is based on a valid reason under Sharee'ah.Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer:

All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger.  Scholars divided divorce given in anger into three categories:1)    The man experiences initial signs of anger in a way that does not make him lose his mind and he knows what he is saying and intending. There is no disagreement that such a divorce takes place without any difference of opinion. 2)    The man is eaten with anger, so he does not know what he is saying. Divorce of that man does not take place. There must not be any disagreement on this ruling because anger covered the mind which is a condition for bearing religious obligations and this man is completely like the mad person. 3)    The man who is in a middle course. He does not become like a mad man, but due to the extreme anger, he is in a state in which he cannot control what he says. If he is asked, "Have you divorced your wife?" He would say, "Yes, but I could not stop myself from uttering the word of divorce due to the flame of anger." The scholars have two opinions about this, and the evidence proves that his words are of no effect. It was narrated on the authority of 'Aa�ishah that the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said: "Divorce and manumission do not count in case of Ighlaaq." [Abu Daawood and Ibn Maajah] Ighlaaq means that the mind becomes prevented from thinking due to anger or any other reason. For further information, refer to Fatwa 121374.However, the husband is more aware of the state of his anger and he is responsible for that before Allaah The Almighty. Besides, the husband's ignorance of divorce does not prevent it from taking place as we previously clarified in Fatwa 92352.On the other hand, uttering divorce twice in one wording or in one session counts as two divorces � according to the majority of scholars � unless the husband only meant to confirm the first divorce by the second one. For further information, see Fatwa 86140.As for having witnesses to divorce, the preponderant opinion of the scholars is that it is recommended. For further information, see Fatwa 119707.Supposing that divorce has taken place, it would be permissible for the husband to take his wife back without a new marriage contract if he did not use up the three times of divorce. In case her 'Iddah (waiting period) has expired, he could not take her back except with a new contract. For further information, see Fatwa 82541.Finally, you should know that explicit divorce takes place even if the husband does not intend divorce. Therefore, the spouses should abstain from disputes as much as they can and the husband should beware of unnecessary usage of the words of divorce. Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer:

Praise be to Allah.

Your wife�s brother can assume the (wali) position. If there is not a brother then an uncle would do. He second eldest son would also do, if he is an adult. In the absence of all of these, an Islamic judge or the head of the Islamic center can renew the contract. You don�t have to tell anyone about the reason. You can say that you just want to renew it because you don�t feel good about the first one. Publicity is not needed at all. There was an addition to my answer to you, but apparently it was lost for one reason or another. Here is the full answer once again:

The marriage contract is void because it was made without fulfilling its necessary conditions. One of these conditions is the readiness of the womb. This means that the woman whom is to get married must have her womb unoccupied. For example, a man may not marry a woman who is pregnant. He may not marry a woman who was divorced until she is out of her idd�ah (a period where a widow or a divorced woman may not marry). Also a man may not marry a woman he has been having intercourse with until they both repent and she gets her monthly period. This is a sign that her womb is clean. The Prophet forbade Muslims to have intercourse with female slaves they bought recently until they are certain that their wombs are clear from any pregnancy. Waiting for the monthly period does this. In your case, the marriage contract must be renewed. This is not a difficult thing to do. The first boy is not Islamicly your son, as he was not created in his mother�s womb through a valid marriage contract. Some scholars say he is not to be called after you as he is born out of adultery. He is to be called after his mother�s family. He is not to inherit you and you are not to inherit him. As for the remaining children, they are yours and they carry your name. Other scholars, such as Ibn Taymiyah and Ibn AlQayyim say that if the woman is not married at the time of committing adultery, then the adulteress father may give his name to this boy and that he may be treated as his son. In your case, this last opinion may be the most suitable for you and your family. Yet you must renew your marriage contract at any Islamic center, and Allah knows best.

(Source: IslamQA)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His Slave and Messenger.The vow of a person who neglects the prayer out of laziness and carelessness is valid and binding, and he is obliged to fulfill it because he is still considered a Muslim. However, if he denies the obligation of the prayer, then he is considered a disbeliever. According to the view of the majority of the scholars, denying the obligation of the prayer takes one out of the fold of Islam, as per the opinion held by Hanbali scholars; they considered the one who abandoned the prayer out of laziness to be out of the fold of Islam. Nevertheless, they also believe that the disbeliever's vow is valid and binding. Al-Hijjawi said, "A vow is valid and binding only if taken by an adult, sane person, even if he is a disbeliever." [Zad Al-Mustaqna'] Ash-Shawkani said:"The scholars held different views regarding the vow of a disbeliever who converts to Islam and took a vow before his conversion. The preponderant opinion is that he is obliged to fulfill it, based on the Hadeeth of Ibn 'Umar who reported that 'Umar said to the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, "Oh Messenger of Allaah, I had taken a vow during the pre-Islamic period of ignorance (i.e. before embracing Islam) to observe I'tikaaf (i.e. seclusion in the mosque for the purpose of worship) for one night in Al-Masjid Al-Haram." The Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said: "Fulfill your vow." [Nayl Al-Awtar]

Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. As far as we know, this product is a black powder that is slowly applied onto the scalp so that its tiny hair-like fibers spread on the hair and scalp, which leads to coating the hair or some of it with this substance, and thus the head looks fuller of hair when one looks at it. As for the validity of ablution after applying this product, it seems that it prevents water from reaching the hair or the bold area when wiping over it, and accordingly the ablution is invalid in this case. This is based on the scholarly view that holds that one must wipe over the whole head during ablution. Al-Baaji wrote, "If the woman enhances her hair with wool or hair, it is impermissible for her to wipe over them in ablution because water does not reach her hair in this case, and if it did reach it, it would only reach some of it. This is based on the scholarly view that wiping over the whole head in ablution is obligatory." [Al-Muntaqa] Allaah knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger.  Your ablution is valid as long as you cannot peel this skin off since it hurts you. This area does not fall under the category of the dead skin that Muslim jurists discussed. Dead skin refers to the skin which separates from the body then becomes dry and covers the body under it. This dead skin must be removed in order to allow the water to reach the area under it because this skin is considered a separate part, whether it is in the feet or elsewhere in the body. The skin which must be removed must be dead and covering part of the living skin, provided its removal does not cause harm. However, in case the removal of that skin may cause harm to the living skin because it is still connected to it and will affect it, then it is not obligatory to remove it. As for the thick skin in the sole of the feet, it is not considered dead skin; it is part of the feet even if removing it may not hurt the person, like the hair or nails.To sum up, when the dead skin covers the living one and the person performing ablution or making Ghusl is able to remove it but he does not, his purification is invalid.Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer:

All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. As for your ablution before Istinjaa�, it should be known that Istinjaa� is required for the validity of the ablution of the person who discharges what makes Istinjaa� due, according to many scholars. Al-Buhooti from the Hanbali school of jurisprudence, said in his book "Ar-Rawdh Al-Murbi�": "And neither ablution nor Tayammum (dry ablution) is held valid before it, i.e. before Istinjaa� with water, stones or the like, based on the Hadeeth of Al-Miqdaad narrated by Al-Bukhari and Muslim, "Let him wash his penis and then perform ablution." In his "Haashiyat Ar-Rawdh" Ibn Qaasim, An-Najdi said about the invalidity of ablution before Istinjaa�, "This opinion is chosen by the majority; and the Shaykh (Ibn Taymiyyah ) said that it is the most famous opinion (in the Hanbali school)." Hence, he, who discharges what makes Istinjaa� due and performs ablution before Istinjaa�, his ablution is not valid. As for your prayer with that ablution before Istinjaa�, if you had discharged anything that makes Istinjaa� due, it would not be held valid according to both opinions because of the presence of impurity (on your private parts), in which case, it becomes incumbent upon you to repeat your ablution (after performing Istinjaa�) and offer a four-Rak'ah prayer for Thuhr (to make up for the Friday prayer). But if you had not discharged anything that makes Istinjaa� due, no Istinjaa� would be required from you before ablution. What you read on our website that Istinjaa� is not obligatory is regarding the person who did not discharge urine or feces or anything which makes Istinjaa� due. Thus, Istinjaa� is due on the person who discharged urine or feces or anything like that. Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. Firstly, we would like to point out that the evidence supportive of any religious ruling is not confined to the texts of the Quran and the Sunnah. If there are no texts from the Quran or the Sunnah and there are statements of the Companions then their statements are used as evidence by scholars and are given precedence over Qiyaas (analogy). The Companions witnessed the descent of the divine revelation and accompanied the Prophet (saw) . They were endowed with the most perfect understanding of the divine revelation and were the most knowledgeable of the intended meanings of the speech of Allaah and His Messenger (saw) . Ibn Al-Qayyim wrote about the kinds of praiseworthy opinion:"The first kind is the opinion of the Companions, who were the most knowledgeable Muslims. They were endowed with the purest hearts, the most genuine characters, the most sincere intentions, the most perfect dispositions, and the clearest minds. They witnessed the descent of the revelation and understood the interpretation and intended meanings of the statements of the Messenger best. The status of their opinions and knowledge of the Sunnah of the Messenger (saw) is as close as the status of their companionship to him." [Iʻlaam Al-Muwaqqiʻeen] There are no explicit texts in the Quran or Sunnah pertaining to conditional divorce. Therefore, Muslim scholars brought forth a number of statements and reports on the authority of the Companions as supportive evidence in this regard. Had there been texts in the Quran or the Sunnah, then they would have cited them and would not have settled for citing the reports of the Companions. Some of these reports are authentic, and some are weak. An example of the authentic reports is the Muʻallaq report (i.e. a hadeeth missing link in the chain of narration, reported directly from the Prophet (saw) ) cited by Al-Bukhari  in the affirmative form of transmission on the authority of Naafi' . It reads, "A man said to his wife, 'If you leave the house, you are divorced.' When Ibn ʻUmar was asked about it, he said, 'If she leaves the house, then she is divorced; and if she does not leave, then nothing happens.'" This report is one of the strongest pieces of evidence about the conditional divorce proving that once the thing on which the divorce is conditioned takes place, divorce takes effect. Ibn Taymiyyah and his student Ibn Al-Qayyim and those who adopted their scholarly view interpreted this report to pertain to the case in which the husband holds the intention of divorce, not of an oath (Yameen). ʻAbd Ar-Razzaaq cited a report on the authority of Ibraaheem At-Taymi, who narrated on the authority of Bakr ibn ʻAbdullaah Al-Muzani that he said:"Abu Raafiʻ (the slave of Layla bint Al-ʻAjmaa') told me, 'My lady, Layla bint Al-ʻAjmaa' said to me, 'If you do not divorce your wife, every slave owned by me is (to be) freed, every item of wealth owned by me is (to be) offered in charity, and I am (to be) considered a Jew or Christian!' Layla bint Al-ʻAjmaa' and her slave went to Zaynab, the daughter of Umm Salamah (who was known for her profound knowledge of Fiqh) to seek her fatwa, and she exclaimed, 'Are you following the example of Haroot and Maroot!' Layla bint Al-ʻAjmaa' responded, 'May Allaah make me your ransom!' Zaynab replied, 'She said that she would be a Jew or Christian! Fear Allaah and pay expiation from your right hand and leave the man and his wife alone...''" The report also mentions that he went to Hafsah and ʻAbdullaah ibn ʻUmar and that they gave the same answer as Zaynab. Ibn Al-Qayyim mentioned that this report has other chains of narration indicating that it was not reported on the authority of At-Taymi only. Ibn Taymiyyah and Ibn Al-Qayyim relied on this report to support their view that conditional divorce does not take effect if it was uttered merely with the intention of making an oath. They drew an analogy between the divorce and the manumission and charity mentioned, which did not take effect when the thing on which they were conditioned took place; rather, it was only an idle oath. Each party supported its view with many pieces of evidence; there is no room to cite all of them here. It should be noted that this matter falls under the category of religious matters open for Ijtihaad (scholarly reasoning). When a Muslim scholar believes a certain view to be the most correct in this regard and advises people to follow it, then he has done his duty. Saʻeed ibn Jubayr said, "The one who acted according to what he had heard has acted rightly." [Al-Bukhari] It is not correct to say that the scholars who held that the conditional divorce takes effect in all cases, regardless of whether the thing on which it is conditioned takes place or not, seek to facilitate divorce, break up marriage bonds, or please Satan! Rather, they have exerted commendable intellectual efforts to reach the scholarly view that they believed to be the closest to the truth in this regard, as stated above. Allaah knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer:  All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alyhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.First of all, it should be noted that the spouses should avoid problems in marital life, and if some problems do happen, they should be wise in solving them, and the husband should avoid uttering the word of divorce and making it as the first solution. He should also avoid anger because it is the key to many evils. For more on how to get rid of anger, refer to Fatwa 86681.Furthermore, a wife should not raise her voice in front of her husband because this is being disobedient to him and this contradicts the fact that Allah made the husband the protector and maintainer of his wife; Allah Says (what means): {Men are in charge of women by [right of] what Allaah has given one over the other and what they spend [for maintenance] from their wealth.} [Quran 4:34]As regards your husband uttering the word divorce at the beginning of the marital life, then we cannot authoritatively say anything precise about this because you did not clarify to us whether he actually initiated divorce or that it was a conditional divorce, and if it was a conditional divorce, whether or not what he conditioned divorce on had occurred. Therefore, in our view your husband should consult one of the scholars in your country or one of the trustworthy Islamic centres so that he would clarify to them what exactly happened. With regard to anger, it does not prevent divorce from taking place if the person is conscious about what he says; for more details, please refer to Fataawa 81843 and 82330. Indeed, anger is of three kinds as clarified in Fatwa 83467:1-     The beginning of the anger when one is conscious of what he says and he is able to control himself. Here divorce does takes place according to the view of all the classical scholars . 2-     The person is not conscious of what he says, in a way that if he was later told, "You have divorced (your wife)," he would say 'I have no knowledge of this.� The divorce of such a person does not take place according to all the scholars .3-     A stage where a person is conscious of what he says but due to his extreme anger, he was not able to control himself and he uttered divorce because of being influenced by this condition. The scholars have two opinions about this, but the most preponderant opinion in our view is that divorce does not take place, and this is the view of Imam Ahmad because the Prophet (saw) , said: "There is no divorce in case of Ighlaaq." [Ahmad] [The word "Ighlaaq" means everything that prevents perception, will and consciousness.] Included in this is the anger that makes a person reach this stage. As regards the last incident, if your husband uttered divorce while perceiving what he said, then the divorce took place, and we do not know what you meant when you said that the divorce is, 'Based on no real matters�. You should know that once the husband utters the word divorce, then divorce takes place. Moreover, if divorce is revocable, then the husband may take back his wife without a new contract provided his wife is still in the waiting period.Allah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer:

All perfect praise be to Allaah, the Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger.

 

The true dawn, which is the time when light spreads horizontally rightward and leftward, is the time when a fasting person has to stop eating, drinking, and anything else that would break his fast. Consequently, if the Athaan that is referred to was pronounced after the rise of the true dawn on the one hand, and the vomiting referred to was intentionally initiated after the person heard or was hearing the Athaan, on the other hand, then the fast of that day would be invalid and has to be made up for. However, if the vomiting was not intentionally initiated, the fast would be valid.

Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer:

All perfect praise be to Allaah, the Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger.  If your menstruation ended before the crack of dawn, then your fasting that day would be valid. Delaying Ghusl after being pure from menstruation does not invalidate fasting. Nevertheless, it was incumbent upon you to perform Ghusl immediately after seeing the sign of purity in order to perform the obligatory prayers at their due time. You are required to make up for the Maghrib and 'Ishaa� prayers of that day if your menstruation had stopped before dawn and there was enough time to perform Ghusl and perform these two prayers. You are also required to make up for the other prayers of that day: the Fajr, Thuhr and 'Asr prayers. You are also required to return back to Allaah and repent from that sin, which was to deliberately delay prayers after their due time. If your menstruation stopped after the crack of dawn, fasting that day would be invalid and you would be required to make up for it.  And Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.A Muslim woman is not permitted to travel for work or for other purposes without being accompanied by a Mahram as the Prophet (saw) said: "It is not permissible for a woman who believes in Allaah and the Last Day to travel a distance of one night except if she is accompanied by her Mahram." [Muslim]Indeed, if there is a necessity, it is permissible for a woman to travel without a Mahram, but the woman in question may not have a necessity that renders what is forbidden to be permissible, as she is married and it is her husband who is obliged to provide for her needs. For more benefit, please refer to Fatwa 86565. Nonetheless, travelling without a Mahram does not have any effect on the income if the work itself is permissible.As regards working in customs and in collecting taxes, then this is subsidiary to the ruling on imposing customs and taxes; if they are imposed in an Islamically-legitimate way, it is permissible to work in it, otherwise no. For more benefit, please refer to Fataawa 85356 and 82663.As regards Hajj and offering the 'Eed sacrifice with unlawful money, then the person who does so is sinful but his Hajj and sacrifice are valid.Imaam An-Nawawi said: "If a person performs Hajj with forbidden money or on a stolen animal, he is sinful and his Hajj is valid and sufficient according to the view of our school; this is the view of Abu Haneefah, Maalik and Al-'Abdari, and it is also the view of most jurists. However, Ahmad said: 'It (his Hajj) is not sufficient (it does not free him from the obligation of Hajj).' Our evidence is that Hajj is specific acts while the prohibition (of those matters) is not related to."Moreover, Al-Qaraafi said in Anwaar Al-Burooq fi Anwaa� Al-Furooq: "If someone prays in a stolen garment or performs ablution with stolen water or performs Hajj with unlawful money - all of these (acts of worship) are valid to us, contrary to Ahmad (ibn Hanbal). The basis for that is that the essence of those obligations, namely Hajj, covering the Awrah (during prayer) and purification, are achieved in the sense of fulfilling its benefit, but not through the legitimate means; and if the obligation is achieved in the sense of fulfilling its benefit, then the prohibition related to the means is a separate matter which involves trespassing against others, like the case of an unlawfully acquired house�"For more benefit, please refer to Fataawa 82512 and 88562.Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and messenger.When a person performs Hajj before making up for the missed fast-days of Ramadan, his Hajj is valid because clearing one's liability from the missed fast-days of Ramadan is not among the conditions for the validity of Hajj. There is no doubt that it is better for the person to hasten to make up for the missed fast-days. Allah, The Exalted, says (what means): {And hasten to forgiveness from your Lord and a garden as wide as the heavens and earth, prepared for the righteous.} [Quran 3:133]Allah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, the Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger. In fact, Hajj is not invalidated by discharging pre-ejaculatory fluid. The questioner has not clarified to us what he intends by his being in front of the Ka'bah: does he mean that he was sitting in the Sanctuary in front of it or that he was performing Tawaaf (circumambulation). If he was performing Tawaaf, then was it Tawaaf Al-Qudoom or Tawaaf Al-Ifadhah? He has not clarified either what he intends by his saying that 'he felt' this: was this feeling mere suspicion, or did he think, almost certainly, that the pre-ejaculatory fluid came out he detect its traces afterwards? All those are but probabilities, and it would be too lengthy to discuss them all.Anyway, we can say that the discharge of the pre-ejaculatory fluid nullifies the ablution, and if it comes out during Tawaaf, then one should leave the Tawaaf and purify himself from it and then repeat ablution once again and start Tawaaf all over again since purity is a requisite for the validity of Tawaaf according to the majority of the scholars. An exception is made if the pre-ejaculatory fluid comes out so frequently that it is difficult to purify oneself  from it every time. This case takes the same ruling like urinary incontinence, and ablution is not nullified because of it.Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.A menstruating woman who is in the state of Janaabah during the days of menstruation is not required to have Ghusl for Janaabah until her menses terminates. When her menses terminates, she can have one Ghusl for both Janaabah and menses. However, if she has Ghusl for Janaabah during the days of menstruation, her Ghusl is valid and the state of Janaabah is removed as stated by Imaam Ahmad . This is especially confirmed if she needs to recite the Quran, which is not forbidden for menstruating women, according to the sound opinion of scholars. By having Ghusl for Janaabah, a woman is allowed to recite the Quran only.Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer:

All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. We ask Allaah to exalt his mention as well as that of his family and all his companions. The scholars differed in opinion about the invalidation of ablution by touching one's private parts. The most preponderant opinion here in Islamweb is that it invalidates ablution as this is the opinion of the majority of scholars. It is an opinion that is based on the most correct evidence, and in order to be on the safe side when performing an act of worship, so relying on this opinion is more appropriate. You can use a means to prevent touching directly the private parts or the like, as it is possible for you to renew your ablution. The Fatwa of the said Shaykh is the opinion of some scholars but acting according to the view of the majority of the scholars is more appropriate because of the evidence that we have provided.  Allaah knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer:

All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. If the situation is as you mentioned in the question that the Islamic court ruled and granted you Khul�, then the relationship between you and your previous husband is finished, so it becomes permissible for you to marry another man after the expiry of your waiting period. If such marriage takes place fulfilling the conditions of a correct marriage, among which is the consent of the guardian and the presence of two witnesses, then the marriage is correct. For more benefit on the conditions of a correct marriage, please refer to Fatwa 83629. It should be noted that a woman or her guardian should not consent to the marriage without asking about the religion and good moral conduct of the man who proposes. Being lenient in this matter may lead to unpleasant consequences. Finally, it should be noted that you should perform the Istikhaarah prayer, as Allaah Knows the outcome better. For more benefit, please refer to Fatwa 81434. Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: Bismillahir-rahmanir-rahim. Sister, Welcome to Islam, may Allah (SWT) blesses you and keep your happiness. Islamically, your marriage is VALID as it is . Wassalamu alaikum.
(Source: islamicity)

Answer:

All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. We ask Allaah to exalt his mention as well as that of his family and all his companions.

 

The majority of scholars are of the view that the marriage that takes place between non-Muslim males and females is correct and they confirm this fact. Some of them (scholars) deduced this from the saying of Allaah, about the wife of Abu Lahab (interpretation of meaning): {And his wife, too, who carries wood.}[111:4]. Their conclusion is that if the marriage had not been valid, Allaah wouldn't have called his wife. In addition, it is not reported that the Prophet (saw) or his rightly guided caliphs used to reject the marriage contract of the people who embraced Islam, but they confirmed the validity of their previous marriage and all rulings based on such contracts, like the rulings of family lineage and inheritance and so on. This of course is in the case where the woman is non-Muslim, as it appears from the question. But if the woman is a Muslim, then to know the ruling about this, please refer to Fatwa: 83425 and 81220.

Allaah knows best.

(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.

If the Wali (guardian) of the woman was present at the time of the contract, then this contract is valid as long as the person who wrote it or witnessed it was not fully drunk and could therefore remember very well what happened at that time.

If, however, no Wali was present when the marriage contract was established, then this marriage is invalid because the Prophet (saw) said: “No marriage could take place without the presence of a Wali.” [Ahmad and Abu Daawood]

The Prophet (saw) also said: “Any woman who got married without the consent of her Wali, her marriage is invalid, her marriage is invalid, her marriage is invalid.” [Ahmad]

However, Imam Abu Haneefah and his disciples are of the view that a valid marriage could take place without the presence of the Wali.

On the other hand, according to both opinions, the divorces that you issued to your wife are valid and counted as divorces. The fact that the marriage contract itself is invalid according to the view of the majority of the scholars, does not influence the divorce itself.

So, any divorce (s) that you issued is valid and you should act accordingly.

For more benefit on a woman’s marriage without guardian, please refer to Fataawa 92758, 85057, 226429, 132754, 81777 and 269080.

Allah knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer:

All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.  If both spouses apostate, then their ruling is as if it is only one of them who apostates according to the three Imaams and according to Zufar from the Hanafi School of jurisprudence; for more benefit, please refer to Fataawa 88845 and 90497. Ibn Qudaamah said: "If both spouses apostate together (at the same time), then their ruling is as if it is only one spouse who apostates; if this is before the consummation of marriage, then they must separate immediately, but in case it is after the consummation of marriage, must they separate immediately or does this depend on the expiry of the waiting period (of the wife)? Both opinions are narrated from Imaam Ahmad and this is the same in the Shaafi�i school of jurisprudence. However, Abu Haneefah said: "The marriage contract does not become void basing his opinion on Istihsaan (i.e. exercising personal opinion in order to be in accordance with broader rules of justice and avoid any rigidity and unfairness. It can also mean separating the ruling of a specific matter from the ruling of similar cases due to textual evidence which requires giving a different ruling to it) because, according to him, they (both spouses) are not of different religions." Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer:

Praise be to Allah.

Al-hamdu lillah (praise be to Allah). Before responding to the this question, a comment must be made regarding an objectionable and reprehensible issue implied in the question, and that is the mentioning by the sister that he �falls in love with another woman�. It is known that it is not permissible in the Islamic religion the establishment of a relationship between a man and a woman who is ajanabiyya to him (lit. foreign, i.e., marriable) before marriage, for Allah revealed in Surat al-Maa�ida (the Table), ayah 5 a verse whose meaning can be translated as:

 �This day are (all) things good and pure made lawful unto you. The food of the People of the Book is lawful unto you and yours is lawful unto them. (Lawful unto you in marriage) are (not only) chaste and virtuous women who are believers, but chaste women among People of the Book, revealed before your time, when you give them their due dowers, and desire chastity, not lewdness, nor secret intrigues. If any one rejects faith, fruitless is his work, and in the Hereafter he will be in the ranks of those who have lost (all spiritual good).�

 And the word �akhdaan� that appears in this ayah (appearing above as �secret intrigues�) means intimate friend or companion, and in this case refers to a lover, and Allah has indicated in Surat al-Ahzaab (33:53) that a condition for talking with women when it is needed is: (a translation of the meaning)

 ��and if you ask them (women) for something you want, ask them from behind a hijab (both in the sense of a physical barrier such as a screen or wall, as well as in clothing); that makes for greater purity for your hearts and for theirs��

And Allah has commanded women not to speak with soft, sensual voices with a man who is ajnabi (lit. foreign, meaning one to whom is not forbidden marriage for her) so that he is not tempted by their voices, and so as not to provoke feelings of lust. Allah ta�aala said in Surat al-Ahzaab ayah 32 a verse whose meaning can be translated as:

�� if you do fear (Allah) be not too complaisant of speech lest one in whose heart is a disease should be moved with desire; but utter sufficient and appropriate speech.� (33:32)

So how could it possibly be permissible after all of these injunctions to establish love or friendship relations among women and men who are ajaanib (marriable)??

And as for the original matter of the question, Allah subhanahu wa-ta�ala who is al-Hakim (All Wise) al-Khabir (All Experienced) and who is more knowledgeable about the human beings He created than they themselves are about themselves, has ordained that a man is allowed to marry whom he wills among women as long as he does not bond in marriage under his care and responsibility more than four women. And this is conditioned upon him dealing justly among them the known justice specified by shari�a which includes overnight stays and spending. If he does not have the ability and capacity to deal with such justice, then he should suffice with one, as Allah indicates in Surat al-Nisaa� in ayah 3, which has a meaning that can be translated as:

�� marry women of your choice, two, or three, or four; but if you fear that you will not be able to deal justly (with them) then only one�� (4:3)

And Allah�s shar�aa (Islamic law) is all just and wise, and He ordains what He wills and does what He want and it is incumbent upon as human beings to believe and have faith and submit and obey and abide by the shari�a, otherwise then we are not Muslims nor mu�mineen (believers). As Allah also said in Surat al-Nisaa� ayah 65 a verse whose meaning can be translated as:

�But no, by your Lord, they can have no (real) faith until they make you judge in all disputes between them, and find in their souls no resistance against your decisions, but accept them with the fullest conviction� (3:65)

and in Surat al-Ahzaab, ayah 36, a meaning that can be translated as:

�It is not fitting for a mu�min (believing man) or mu�mina (believing woman) when a matter has been decided by Allah and His Messenger to have any option about their decision: if anyone disobeys Allah and His Apostle he is indeed strayed on a manifestly wrong path.� (33:36)

Furthermore, no evidence appears neither in the Qur�an nor sunnah requiring the permission of the first wife if her husband wishes to marry another wife, and therefore he is not required to ask her permission. However, he needs to be judicious in taking this decision and to weigh it carefully with respect to benefits and drawbacks and to look with the eye of wisdom at all of the considerations pertaining to the matter, and he should strive all he can to conciliate, reassure, and satisfy his first wife, in order to ease and mitigate the effect of the matter upon her.

(Source: IslamQA)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. The Murji�ah are divided into sub-sects as it is known in the Books of Sects. Some Murji�ah jurists consider that actions are not included in the circle of faith, but they consider sinful the one who does not carry out an obligation or commits what is forbidden. However, the difference of opinion with them (Murji�ah jurists) is a verbal dispute, as stated by Shaykh Ibn Taymiyyah .Also, some of them consider that sins do not undermine the deeds of a person as long as he is a believer, in the same manner that a good deed does not benefit a disbeliever.Also, there are among them extremists who believe that faith is just knowledge (belief in Allaah), and they are not disbelievers but innovators. However, they are not all equal in innovation [i.e. their degree of innovation varies]. For more benefit, please refer to fataawa 91651 and 10346.In any case, the prayer behind them is valid because the most preponderant opinion is that the prayer is valid behind the people of the Qiblah regardless of whether they are righteous or dissolute.Perhaps the scholars who forbid the prayer behind them held the view that the prayer behind a dissolute person is void.Therefore, the quote that you have mentioned in the question does not imply that the one who said this quote considers the Murji'ah to be disbelievers. The preponderant view is that of the majority of the scholars; that the prayer is valid behind any righteous or dissolute Muslim.Allaah knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah and that Muhammad, sallallahu ʻalayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.What you mentioned does not affect the validity of the prayer; rather, it only affects its acceptance by Allah if such dislike is for a valid reason. Muslim scholars stated that it is disliked for an imaam to lead people in prayer if the majority of them dislike him for a defect in his religious commitment or the like. But if it is only the minority of them who dislike him, then their dislike is not taken into consideration. The same ruling applies if such dislike is unjustified for reasons such as envy, grudges, and the like; they are not taken into consideration. Even if an imaam leads people who dislike him in prayer, his prayer is valid but disliked.Al-Haashiyah 'Ala Ar-Rawdh reads:"It is disliked for an imaam to lead people in prayer if most of them dislike him justly due to defects in his religiosity or virtue. (Imaam) Ahmad said, 'If two or three people dislike him, there is no problem with that; dislike is taken into account if most of them dislike him. It was said that this applies to the oppressors. The scholars stipulated that such dislike should be for a religious reason only. Al-Khattaabi and Al-Baghawi and others held that it is disliked (for an imaam to lead people who dislike him) if they dislike him for a valid reason, such as is the case if he is an unjust ruler, someone who forces himself on them despite being unqualified, someone who is careless in avoiding impurities, someone who does not perform the prayer positions properly, or someone who leads a dispraised life or keeps the company of the dissolute, and the like. Otherwise, it is not disliked (that he leads the prayer), and those who dislike him (for no reason) are the ones who are to be blamed."Allah knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and messenger. The prayer is valid and counts as a sound fulfillment of the obligation if it is performed after the time of the prayer has begun as you mentioned, even if the Athaan for it was called before the beginning of the prescribed time of the prayer. The validity of the Athaan is not a condition for the validity of the prayer; rather, if you pray without calling the Athaan, the prayer is still valid. As regards the Athaan itself, it is not valid to call the Athaan before the prayer's prescribed time has started, because it is a condition for the validity of the Athaan that it should be called after the time of the prayer has begun and it is forbidden to call it before that. Ibn Hajar Al-Haythami said in Tuhfat Al-Muhtaaj: "Calling the Athaan before the prescribed time of the prayer has begun is impermissible and invalid according to the consensus of the scholars." Also, Ibn Rushd said in Bidaayat Al-Mujtahid: "As regards the time of the Athaan, all the scholars agreed that the Athaan for the prayer is not to be called before its time begins, with the exception of Fajr prayer." [End of quote] Moreover, Ibn Qudaamah said in al-Mughni: "Calling the Athaan before the beginning of the time of the prayer is not valid with the exception of the Athaan of Fajr prayer. We do not know any difference of opinion about this." Ibn Al-Munthir said: "The scholars agreed in consensus that it is a Sunnah to call the Athaan for the prayer after its time has begun, with the exception of the Fajr prayer. This is because the Athaan is prescribed for announcing the beginning of the time of the prayer, so calling the Athaan is not permissible before the beginning of the time of the prayer, so that its purpose would not be missed." [End of quote] According to, Al-Mudawwanah: Imaam Maalik said: "The Athaan is not to be called for any prayer before its time has begun with the exception of Fajr prayer only. This is because the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said: 'Indeed, Bilaal calls the Athaan when it is still night, so eat and drink until Ibn Umm Maktoom calls the Athaan.� He said: 'Ibn Umm Maktoom was a blind man and he did not call the Athaan unless people said to him, it is morning, it is morning� [i.e. it is time for the Fajr prayer]. Maalik said: 'It was not reported to us that there was a prayer whose Athaan was called before the beginning of its time except Fajr prayer. The Athaan is not to be called for any other prayer before its time has begun including Friday prayer.�" [End of quote] Therefore, if someone calls the Athaan before the time of the prayer has begun, he should call the Athaan again when its time starts. Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. First of all, according to the preponderant statements of the jurists, if before the marriage contract the husband and the wife or her guardian agreed on something that does not contradict the general goal of the marriage contract, then it is an obligation to fulfill it. We have already clarified this issue in Fatwa 131714. It is not necessary that this should be done in a special gathering or that it be documented; and no one other than the wife or her guardian has the right to stipulate conditions on the husband.Secondly, covering the face for a woman is a controversial issue among the scholars. The preponderant opinion that we hold here in Islamweb is that covering the face is an obligation. For more benefit, please refer to Fatwa 92091. However, if a woman believes that the preponderant opinion is that covering the face is not an obligation, or if she follows the view of a scholar who holds the opinion that covering the face is not an obligation, then it is acceptable for her to stipulate on her husband not to cover her face, and if he agrees to that, he is obliged to fulfill it.Thirdly, it is permissible for a woman to stipulate on her husband before marriage that she can work. In case he accepts this condition, he is obliged to fulfill it, and he is not entitled to prevent her from work except for a legitimate reason. In case she renounces this right and agrees to work from home, then she can do so.For more benefit, please refer to Fatwa 180745.Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. If what happened with the first man was that the marriage contract took place with the consent of the guardian and the presence of two trustworthy witnesses, then the marriage is correct, and this is not the secret marriage which was prohibited by the scholars . Subsequently, you are a wife to that man and you are not permitted to marry another man as long as you are still his wife, and you are obliged to reside where your husband resides. However, if the marriage took place without the consent of the guardian and the presence of two witnesses, then the marriage is void because there are some conditions for a correct marriage that should be fulfilled, the most important of which are the consent of the guardian and the presence of two witnesses. Therefore, this marriage should be invalidated whether by the husband or by the Islamic court and it is not permissible for you to marry another man before this. If this marriage is invalidated, you may marry the first man or the second man, but if this second man is a religious man who has a good moral conduct and he resides in the same country as you, then it is more appropriate for you to marry him because in this case he will let you live among your family generally, and this may be a reason for the stability and continuity of the marital life. However, if you want to marry any one of them, then you should perform Istikhaarah prayer before going ahead with the marriage. For details about performing Istikhaarah prayer, refer to Fatwa 81434.Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. If you are not able to pronounce the letter (Raa') or any other letter for a defect in your tongue and the like, then your prayer is valid as well as the prayer of those whom you lead in prayer of those who are like you unable to pronounce some letters. However, it is not permissible for you to lead in prayer those who recite Quran well and pronounce letters properly. For more benefit, kindly refer to the Fatwa 123119.Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger. It is permissible for the pilgrim who wants to perform Tamattu' Hajj to make 'Umrah in the month of Shawwaal or in Thul-Qa'dah. That is because both Shawwaal and Thul-Qa'dah are among the months of Hajj in which the pilgrim who performs 'Umrah is considered doing Tamattu' Hajj. However, if he arrived at the lands of Hejaz and had not passed the Meeqaat, he would be allowed to enter the state of Ihraam for 'Umrah whenever he wants during the months of Hajj. If he arrived at Makkah intending to carry out the rituals, he would not be allowed to enter it except in the state of Ihraam. It is not permissible for him to pass the Meeqaat toward Makkah except in the state of Ihraam as long as he wants to perform the rituals. After specifying the Mawaaqeet, the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said: "These sites are for the designated people and for people who come through them from outside with the intention to perform Hajj or 'Umrah." [Al-Bukhari and Muslim] If the pilgrim assumed Ihraam for 'Umrah in Shawwaal or the next month and entered Makkah, he could perform the acts of 'Umrah including Tawaaf, Sa'y, and shaving or shortening the hair, whenever he wants before Hajj, so that he would be considered Mutamatti'. The Sunnah is that he starts with Tawaaf upon entering Makkah.Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger.You have not told us whether you had the brownish discharge after the termination of the usual duration your menses. If that discharge was  after your usual duration of menses, then you were pure during Tawaaf Al-Ifaadhah, according to what the Hanbali scholars hold as the preponderant opinion. Building on this, your Tawaaf after the termination of menses is valid even if you had the brownish discharge afterwards. Also, your Tawaaf is valid if you verified the termination of menses by entering a white piece of cloth in your vagina then taking it out without any blood on it. In that case, if you had Ghusl and made Tawaaf even before your usual duration of menstruation has ended then the blood flowed again or you had brownish or yellowish discharge, then you are not liable for anything. This is considering the days when the blood flowed as the days of menstruation, and the days when menses was absent as the days of purity. That is what we understand from your question. If you did not make sure that you were dry before having Ghusl, then you made Tawaaf during menses. This case is contested among scholars. Many of them maintain that that Tawaaf is invalid, whereas others say  that it is valid and that a sheep is to be slaughtered, according to Imaam Ahmad or a camel is to be slaughtered, according to Abu Haneefah . Based on the view of scholars who think the Tawaaf is invalid, you are still in the state of Ihraam and you should avoid the violations of Ihraam. When you go to Makkah, make Tawaaf first, then Sa'y, then terminate your Hajj by shortening some hair of your head. After that you may initiate Ihraam for making 'Umrah.As regards violation of Ihraam that you committed before terminating Hajj, anything that was for comfort reasons, such as wearing form-fitting clothes and applying perfume, you are not liable to anything thereof. Anything that you done by way of removal, such as shaving hair and clipping nails, then you are liable to a single Fidyah for each sort of violations even if it was repeated more then once.It should be noted that having sexual intercourse during Ihraam forgetfully or out of ignorance of the ruling does not invalidate your Hajj.  No liability is applicable according to some  scholars, which is the opinion chosen by Shaykh Al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah . The Fidaya (ransom as substitute) can be offered by either  slaughtering a sheep, providing food to six needy people, or fasting three days. Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, the Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger. If your suspicion, which was close to certainty, was based not so much on an obsession as on concrete evidence such as seeing the filth on your Ihram clothing or so, then you have performed Tawaaf with your clothing affected with impurity. If you came to know about the filth after having finished your Tawaaf, then your Tawaaf is valid and it is not due on you to repeat it. Your 'Umrah is valid too then, and there is no problem.If you came to know about the filth during Tawaaf but you completed it, then it should be known to you that purity from filth is a requisite for the validity of Tawaaf according to the opinion of the majority of the scholars, although according to Abu Haneefah and a narration attributed to Ahmad, it is not a requisite.We hope that acting upon this opinion may provide a way out for you, in which case you should slaughter a sheep and distribute its flesh among the poor dwellers of Makkah.Similarly, if your suspicion that your child urinated during your Tawaaf was so strong that it was close to certainty but nothing of the filth affected your garment, then your Tawaaf is valid, and that there was filth on the body or clothing of the child has nothing to do with its validity.Shaykh Ibn Baz was asked about the ruling on carrying a child during prayer or Tawaaf if the child is wearing a diaper containing filth that does not affect the external clothes. He said: "The Messenger of Allaah, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, led people in prayer while carrying Umamah bint Zaynab . There is nothing wrong with carrying a child during prayer or Tawaaf when there is a need for that. The child cannot be safe from any filth that may come out of him. If this filth is not apparent, and rather is kept with something like a diaper, then there is no problem, and praise be to Allaah."Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer:

All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. Any person who abandons the prayer while denying its legitimacy goes out of the fold of Islam according to the consensus of the scholars . Indeed, there is absolute evidence that the acts of worship of a non-Muslim are not accepted. Allaah Says (what means): {And what prevents their expenditures from being accepted from them but that they have disbelieved in Allaah and in His Messenger.}[Quran 9:54]. Allaah also Says (what means): {The example of those who disbelieve in their Lord is [that] their deeds are like ashes which the wind blows forcefully on a stormy day; they are unable [to keep] from what they earned a [single] thing. That is what extreme error is.}[Quran 14:18]. There are other verses in this regard.As regards a person who abandons the prayer out of laziness, then we do not know absolute evidence which states that his fasting is not accepted; this depends on the ruling of abandoning the prayer. The scholars who are of the view that a person who abandons the prayer out of laziness goes out of the fold of Islam, they have absolute evidence from the Book of Allaah and the Sunnah of the Prophet (saw) that the acts of worship of a non-Muslim are not accepted. On the other hand, the scholars who are of the opinion that a person does not go out of the fold of Islam just for abandoning the prayer(out of laziness), did not state that his fasting is not valid. For more benefit, please refer to Fataawa 85264 and 83368. Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer:

All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. First of all, we thank and praise Allaah Who guided you to Islam and we ask Him to make you firm and steadfast on His Religion until the Day you meet Him. We advise you to seek beneficial knowledge, perform good deeds and befriend righteous and pious women, as these are the best things that help a Muslim woman remain steadfast on her religion. May Allaah reward you for being keen on pleasing Him and for asking about the religious matters that concerns you.As regards the Misyaar marriage, then it is a marriage that fulfils the conditions of a correct marriage, like the consent of the guardian and the presence of two witnesses while the wife renounces some of her rights, like her husband staying overnight with her and spending on her, and the like. Nonetheless, the fact that the wife renounces some of her rights does not affect the validity of the marriage; for more benefit on the ruling of Misyaar marriage, please refer to Fatwa 82104.On the other hand, your husband should not have lied to you, but since what happened had already taken place that your husband married a second wife, then he did not do except what Allaah permitted him to do �meaning that Allaah permitted a man to marry more than one wife. For more benefit on the wisdom of polygamy, please refer to Fataawa 90132, 86818 and 84184. Therefore, we advise you not to be preoccupied about this marriage, but you have the right to ask your husband about your rights on him, among which is having sexual intercourse with you; a husband is obliged to keep his wife chaste and having sexual intercourse with her is her right. If a husband is not able to fulfill this right, then his wife has the right to ask him to divorce her because of the harm on her because of him not having sexual intercourse with her, or she may be patient with him hoping that Allaah will rectify their affairs. It might be that her staying with her husband while he is negligent about this right is better than separating from him especially if she is blessed with children with him because divorce may lead to the disunity of the family. The following matters should be mentioned: 1-     It is not permissible for a wife to ask her husband to divorce his second wife. 2-     The parent who has the right in fostering the children, has no right to prevent the other parent from seeing his/her children.3-     Having sexual intercourse is a right of the wife as we have already mentioned, so the husband has no right to prevent his wife from this right without her consent, and no one can give the permission to the husband about this. 4-     It is not correct to link the problems that happened between you and your husband to the matter of your religion and your righteousness, rather, you should be concerned about learning the matters of your religion and you should seek to purify yourself in any case. This can be done by striving against one�s own self and by seeking the help of Allaah.Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer:

All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.  Your prayer, fasting and all other acts of worship are correct, meaning that you are not obliged to make them up as long as you performed them fulfilling their pillars and conditions. However, you must return the money you took without due right to its owner, because taking forbidden money may prevent you from the reward for those acts. It may also prevent your supplication from being answered whether or not your mobile phone is in your pocket. For more benefit, please refer to Fatwa 85498. Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. All incidents in the universe take place by the fate and decree of Allaah The Almighty, for Allaah The Almighty Says (what means): � {Indeed, all things We created with predestination.} [Quran 54:49]� {No disaster strikes except by permission of Allaah.} [Quran 64:11]It is stated in a Hadeeth (narration): "� and to believe in destiny, its good and evil." [Muslim] The Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said: "Everything is destined even the inability and skill (to do things)." [Muslim]Shaykh Ibn Al-'Uthaymeen mentioned valuable words about predestined evil, emphasizing that all the actions of Allaah are good, as indicated by the Hadeeth: "All good is in Your Hands, and evil is not ascribed to You." [Muslim]Destiny may seem to be evil for the slave of Allaah when it is something that he does not like, such as illness, poverty, or being subjected to prescribed corporal punishments. However, it may involve some good that he is unaware of, such as forgiving his sins or raising his degrees. The Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said: "No fatigue, nor illness, nor misery, nor sorrow, nor harm, nor distress befalls a Muslim, not even the prick of a thorn, but Allaah will expiate by it some of his sins." [Al-Bukhari]In another Hadeeth, he said: "Strange are the ways of a believer for there is goodness for him in all his affairs, and that is for none except for a believer. If he is blessed with prosperity, he thanks (Allaah) and that would be good for him. And if he is afflicted with an adversity, he keeps patient and that would also be good for him." [Muslim]People might be afflicted with trials to make them turn to Allaah in repentance. Allaah The Almighty Says (what means): {Corruption has appeared throughout the land and sea by [reason of] what the hands of people have earned so He may let them taste part of [the consequence of] what they have done that perhaps they will return [to righteousness]} [Quran 30:41]Moreover, carrying out the prescribed corporal punishments expiates people's sins as mentioned in Hadeeth: "He who has committed something of these [sins], and was punished for it in this worldly life, then it is expiation for him."Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.

You should assess only the products of the company and pay their Zakaah as they are the items that are intended for trade and sale. These products are like trade goods in shops.

As regards the machines and equipments of production and the like, which are not for sale, they should not be valued (among the products) as there is no Zakaah on them. But if you had bought the company with the intention of selling it, then it is a trade commodity, and so, it should be valued and you must pay Zakaah on it.

Allah knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer:

All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. We ask Allaah to exalt his mention as well as that of his family and all his companions.  According to our knowledge vanilla is an ingredient that is used for making cakes and it is not known that vanilla is made from any forbidden element, therefore we do not see any harm in its use unless it is confirmed that it is made with some forbidden ingredients like alcohol for instance, in which case it is forbidden to use it. Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. First of all, there is absolutely no contradiction in the Noble Quran. The two verses mentioned above are from the Surah of Al-Baqarah and there is no contradiction between them in any way.Allaah The Almighty Says (what means): {If it had been from [any] other than Allaah, they would have found within it much contradiction.} [Quran 4:82]According to many scholars of Tafseer, the first verse means: "Allaah The Almighty Favored some of those Messengers mentioned in this Surah and in other Surahs over others in terms of circumstances, characteristics, supernatural abilities, divine care and the various miracles. There is no differentiation regarding prophethood itself; rather, the differentiation has to do with other matters that are separate from that. Hence, some of them were Messengers of firm resolve, some were taken as intimate Friends of Allaah, some of them were spoken to directly by Allaah and some were raised in status as mentioned in the other verse. Allaah The Almighty Says (what means): {And We Have Made some of the prophets exceed others [in various ways], and to Daawood (David) We Gave the book [of Psalms].} [Quran 17:55]  Also, Allaah The Almighty Distinguished the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, with Sending him to all human beings from the beginning of his prophethood to the moment when Allaah The Almighty Will Inherit the earth and whatever is on it.Allaah The Almighty Says (what means):�        {And We Have not Sent you, [O Muhammad], except as a mercy to the Worlds.} [Quran 2:107]�        {And We Have not Sent you except comprehensively to mankind.} [Quran 34:28]As for the second verse in which Allaah The Almighty Says (what means): {We Make no distinction between any of His messengers.}  [Quran 2:285], it means that we believe in them all (Messengers) and we are not like those whom Allaah The Almighty Censured and Promised to Punish. Allaah The Almighty Says (what means): {Indeed, those who disbelieve in Allaah and His messengers and wish to discriminate between Allaah and His messengers and say, "We believe in some and disbelieve in others," and wish to adopt a way in between. Those are the disbelievers, truly. And We Have Prepared for the disbelievers a humiliating punishment.} [Quran 4:150-151]For further information about this noble verse, we refer you to Fatwa no. 42031.Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer:

All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and messenger.  Going out in the cause of Allaah The Almighty for Da'wah, and guiding people to the right path does not have one specific method, because it is a means of delivering the message of Allaah The Almighty. Therefore, the one calling others to Allaah can meet people in mosques, market places, the places where they gather, visit them in their homes, or set up educational centers in their area and so on. Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)

Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.The report about Ibn 'Umar was presented in Al-Bukhari as a Mu'allaq report (whose chains of narrators are omitted) on the authority of Naafi' under the heading "Chapter: A divorce pronounced in a state of anger, under compulsion or under the effect of intoxicants or insanity." He cited in that chapter a report on the authority of Naafi' that a man said to his wife, "If you leave the house, you are divorced." When Ibn 'Umar was asked about it, he said, "If she leaves the house, then she is divorced; and if she does not leave, nothing will happen."Scholars explained that when Al-Bukhari cites a Mu'allaq report using the active voice reporting verb (e.g. said), its chain of narration is considered authentic up to the very reporter he mentioned in the chain of narration, and the rest of the chain should be investigated before declaring its authenticity. In this case, the report was narrated on the authority of Naafi' from Ibn 'Umar, which is one of the strongest (most authentic) chains of narration.As for the report of Ibn Mas'ood it was cited by Al-Bayhaqi in his book As-Sunan Al-Kubra. Hadeeth scholars classified this report as Munqati' (disconnected) because Ibraaheem who narrated it on the authority of Ibn Mas'ood was the son of Yazeed An-Nakha'i, and he was born seventeen years after the death of Ibn Mas'ood.The third narration was also cited by Al-Bayhaqi in his book As-Sunan Al-Kubra. Some scholars classified it as weak because it was narrated on the authority of Ismaa'eel ibn Abi Uways; some scholars said he is a weak narrator.Ibn Taymiyyah and his student Ibn Al-Qayyim relied on some accounts reported on the authority of our righteous predecessors to support their view that conditional divorce does not take effect if it was uttered merely for the purpose of threatening. For instance, it has been reported on the authority of Ibn 'Umar, 'Aa�ishah, and Umm Salamah that they all agreed that only expiation of breaking an oath was due in the famous incident when Layla bint Al-'Ajmaa� said (to her slave Abu Raafi'), "If you do not divorce your wife, every slave owned by me is (to be) freed, every item of wealth owned by me is (to be) offered in charity, and I am (to be) considered a Jew or Christian!" They (Ibn Taymiyyah and Ibn Al-Qayyim) interpreted the reports that support the opposing opinion as pertaining to cases when the husband has the intention of divorce, thus adopting the methodology of  resolving this narration and the other narrations that seemingly contradict it.In any case, we are not concerned with detailing and discussing the issue of conditional divorce in this Fatwa; the Council of Senior Scholars has discussed this issue in detail and declared the opinion of the majority of scholars as the most valid opinion; and this is the opinion we adopt at Islamweb.The last report of Ibn 'Umar is related to the case when the husband authorizes his wife to issue the divorce. It is presented in Imaam Maalik's book Al-Muwatta� under the heading "Cases when divorce takes effect when the wife is authorized (by the husband) to issue it." It has nothing to do with the conditional divorce. Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)