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Displaying Questions 1 through 50
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Topic: A
A 10 year old child fostered by paternal uncles
Question 120840: I would like to ask a question. I would like to know the "fair" and Islamic solution to this problem. A mother was divorced after she had a child. The uncles, from the father's side, took care of t...
Question 120840: I would like to ask a question. I would like to know the "fair" and Islamic solution to this problem. A mother was divorced after she had a child. The uncles, from the father's side, took care of the child nearly all the time. Later, the father died, and the child stayed with his uncles. During this time, the mother would see her child, and he would stay with her sometimes, but he "lived" with his uncles. Now, when the child is about 10 years old, the mother is trying to get him into the United States, where she along with her mother and brothers live. The uncles, however, reject this idea, and are not allowing the mother to get him into the U.S. They say don't like the mom for being somewhat "westernized"..... wearing a scarf, but wearing tight clothes and having a bad personality. What would be the just resolution to such a problem?
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. We ask Allaah to exalt his mention as well as that of his family and all his companions. Some scholars stated that when a child reaches the age of distinction-which is 7 years- he is given the choice to choose between staying with his father or mother, or with his relatives from father's side if the father is dead. Therefore, since this child is 10 years old, he should be given the choice to choose between his mother and his paternal uncles, if they come in priority before other relatives of his father. However, if the mother is deficient for any reason, like fearing that she will cause harm to him in his religion or with regard to his worldly matters, then she should not be allowed to take the child with her, especially that she wants to take him to a country where it is feared for his belief and moral conduct. Finally, it should be noted that in such matters, it is more appropriate to resort to an Islamic court or any religious organization to look into the matter. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A 17 year old stepson lives with her
Question 121376: My sister married a man who has boy (aged 17 years) from his previous wife. The man divorced my sister but the boy (who is not my sister's son) is living with my sister in our joint family home. In Is...
Question 121376: My sister married a man who has boy (aged 17 years) from his previous wife. The man divorced my sister but the boy (who is not my sister's son) is living with my sister in our joint family home. In Islam can this boy live with my sister as her step-son? Can he be treated as her son? Or should she observe hijab around that boy?
Answer:
Praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all his Family and Companions. The stepmother is a Mahram for the step-son, and she does not have to put Hijab in front of him. She can appear in front of him in the same state she appears in front her brother and father, on the condition she does not cause him temptation.However, if this son is living in a joint family home where there are other women, other than the wives of his father, then it is not permissible for these women to appear in front of him and it is not permissible for him to be in seclusion with them or to shake hands with them. He is a Mahram for his step-mother but not for the sister of his step-mother or the like.Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A �??fire�?� is the first Sign of the final Hour
Question 103045: I read a Hadeeth saying that there will be a fire emerging from the east that is one of the signs of the final Hour. Will you please elaborate on this?
Question 103045: I read a Hadeeth saying that there will be a fire emerging from the east that is one of the signs of the final Hour. Will you please elaborate on this?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, the Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and messenger. Anas narrated that when 'Abdullaah Ibn Salaam was informed of the Prophet�s, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, arrival in Madeenah, he came and asked him, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, about three things that no one except a prophet would know. One of these was about the first Sign of the final Hour and the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, told him that it would be a fire that would gather people in crowds from the east to the west. [Al-Bukhari]Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A baby boy touching a baby girl
Question 120749: Can a baby boy touch a baby girl?
Question 120749: Can a baby boy touch a baby girl?
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. We ask Allaah to exalt his mention as well as that of his family and all his companions. A baby, means a very young child who has not yet learnt to speak or talk; so if this is what you mean, there is no harm for a baby-girl to touch a baby-boy because they are not yet pubescent. The Prophet (saw) said: "The pen is lifted from three��and a child until he grows up [becomes pubescent]." Furthermore, there is no evil which results from them touching each other. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A baby sucking the milk of a woman who never got pregnant
Question 119740: Dear Ustaz, To ensure that we're clear of any doubt as His servant in line with what Prophet Ibrahim did when he actually asked Allah to bring back life after death and Prophet Moses when he wan...
Question 119740: Dear Ustaz, To ensure that we're clear of any doubt as His servant in line with what Prophet Ibrahim did when he actually asked Allah to bring back life after death and Prophet Moses when he wanted to see Him and there went the crashed mountain. I would like to seek your opinion on the future status of our adopted female infant who managed to be breastfed at the age of less than a month (1 week) by my wife with the help of medication to induce milk ie whether or not she's muhrim or not to me as the father (and if I'm not mistaken the muhrim matter can be disregarded when I become very old). Since my wife had never conceived before milk produced was very little thus we didn't satisfy the condition of having to ensure the baby is 5 times full. Now she's 7 years old. For your information this child adopting programme has been around since 1987 and was approved by our islamic authority. And we actually follow the step of our colleague who adopted a child earlier than us whose background's in syari'ah law, was once a lecturer before working as a financial institution syari'ah advisor. I would appreciate if your goodself could support with authentic hadith, arguments etc.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. We have already clarified that if a woman who was never pregnant had milk and she breastfed a child 5 times his fill, and this was during the period of two years, then she becomes his suckling mother. For more benefit, please refer to Fataawa 92362, 91200 and 86312.A suckling by which the child has suckled his fill is when the infant sucks the nipple of the woman and then releases it (when he doesn't feel like sucking any more) with his own will, and he may do that more than once in one session.Therefore, if that girl had really suckled five times according to what we mentioned, then your wife has become a suckling mother for her and you will be a Mahram to her even if the milk she suckled was not produced after your wife had given birth to your child. That is because she is the daughter of your wife, so she is like your step-daughter. However, if there is any doubt regarding this suckling whether or not it renderers the mother a Mahram to the child, then in this case, your wife is not considered her suckling mother because, in suckling, it is a condition that it should be confirmed in a manner that proves that the mother becomes a Mahram to the child.However, we do not know what you mean by the adoption that the Islamic authority judges to be lawful. If you mean the valid suckling that renders the suckling mother a Mahram to the child she suckled, then there is not doubt about confirming the mother as a Mahram to the child by suckling him. Also, if you mean taking care of orphans and sponsoring them, then this is a matter which the Sharee�ah encourages and Allaah gives much reward for it. But, if you mean adoption itself, in a way that this girl is traced back to you, then this is forbidden. For more benefit, please refer to Fataawa 82371 and 84422.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A baby who breastfed from a woman is a milk-sibling to all her children
Question 118007: Assalaamu alaykum. My mother breastfed my oldest sister and this boy, Ally, together. So I believe they are brother and sister. I was born many many years after. Ally got married and has a daughter. I...
Question 118007: Assalaamu alaykum. My mother breastfed my oldest sister and this boy, Ally, together. So I believe they are brother and sister. I was born many many years after. Ally got married and has a daughter. I would like to marry Ally's daughter. Am I allowed to marry Ally's daughter given that her father shared milk with my sister? Thank you.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.If that man named Ali breastfed from your mother along with your eldest sister � as you mentioned � then by this he becomes your brother through breastfeeding. Therefore, it is not permissible for you to marry his daughter because she is the daughter of your brother from breastfeeding. The fact that you did not breastfeed along with him is of no effect Islamically; what is important is that he breastfed from your mother.It should be noted that the breastfeeding that makes it forbidden for one to marry someone else who breastfed from the same woman is breastfeeding five times one�s full in the first two years of age according to the preponderant opinion, which is also the view we adopt here in Islamweb.For more benefit, please refer to fatwa 83788. Allaah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A bad dream will not necessarily come true
Question 106418: A senior person sees a bad dream about 3 young people of his/her family; He/she narrates it unfortunately. Two of those young people suffer severely in their marital life. The third is going to get ma...
Question 106418: A senior person sees a bad dream about 3 young people of his/her family; He/she narrates it unfortunately. Two of those young people suffer severely in their marital life. The third is going to get married now. What should he/she do to avoid any 'shar'.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.Part of the proper conduct concerning seeing a bad dream is that whoever sees it should conceal it and not relate it to others. So this brother was wrong for telling his dream to the people. Please refer to Fataawa 83663 and 158551.Nonetheless, it does not necessarily follow that what happened to these two young people was because of that dream, nor that the third of them will be affected by it. In any case, a Muslim should ask Allaah for well-being in this worldly life and in the Hereafter. Supplication is part of the predetermination, and Allaah may repel with it much affliction. The Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said: "There is nothing that repels predetermination except supplication." [Ahmad, At-Tirmithi and Ibn Maajah]The Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, used to supplicate as follows: "O Allaah, I ask You for pardon and well-being in this life and the next. O Allaah, I ask You for pardon and well-being in my religious and worldly affairs, and my family and my wealth. O Allaah, cover my faults and settle my fears. O Allaah, protect me from the front and from behind and on my right and on my left and from above, and I seek refuge in Your Greatness from catastrophe below me." [Ahmad and Ibn Maajah]Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A bank paying a bonus to encourage its customers to buy with its credit card
Question 116245: Assalamu Alaikum, I am owing a Credit Card for several years. Up to now I am controlling myself to avoid any interest payment. Alhamdulillah. Now the bank is paying a bonus of 1 rupee for every purcha...
Question 116245: Assalamu Alaikum, I am owing a Credit Card for several years. Up to now I am controlling myself to avoid any interest payment. Alhamdulillah. Now the bank is paying a bonus of 1 rupee for every purchase of 100 rupees to encourage the customers to purchase more. Is this a RIBA ?
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. We ask Allaah to exalt his mention as well as that of his family and all his companions. First of all, it should be mentioned that it is not permissible to deal with credit cards which include Ribaa (interest and/or usury) in return for a loan or delay in repayment, even if the one who deals with such cards is keen not to be involved in Ribaa. For more benefit, please refer to Fataawa 90131 and 84519. As regards the ruling on what the bank pays to its customers in order to encourage them to buy with the credit card, then this depends on the nature of such card. If this card involves Ribaa for the loan, as usual, then this is forbidden money and it is forbidden to accept it, because it is given to people to encourage them to commit what is forbidden. However, if the bank does not impose Ribaa on the loan, but rather takes some money from the buyers in return for the service rendered by the card, or that it takes from them a commission on the bought goods, which are obtained only by using these cards, then this is permissible.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A bank taking commission on the warranty
Question 116085: ALL PRAISE BE TO ALLAH AND PEACE BE UPON OUR PROPHET AND ALL HIS FAMILY? I WOULD LIKE FIRST OF ALL TO THANK YOU FOR THE EFFORT YOU ARE MAKING TO ADVISE US AND CLARIFY MANY MISCONCEPTION. I WANT TO BUY...
Question 116085: ALL PRAISE BE TO ALLAH AND PEACE BE UPON OUR PROPHET AND ALL HIS FAMILY? I WOULD LIKE FIRST OF ALL TO THANK YOU FOR THE EFFORT YOU ARE MAKING TO ADVISE US AND CLARIFY MANY MISCONCEPTION. I WANT TO BUY A CAR IN INSALMENT (TO AVOID GETTING A LOAN) BUT THE RESTRICTION DONE BY THE SELLER IS THAT THE BILL MUST BE WARRANTED BY A BANK WICH TAKE A COMMISSION OF 0.00125 APPLIED ON EACH AMOUNT OF INSALMENT MY QUESTION IS THIS TRANSACTION LEGAL? ESPECIALY FOR THE BANK TAKING VARIABLE FEES ON EACH INSALMENTS? THANK YOU IN ADVANCE.
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. If by the expression the bill must be 'warranted by a bank� you mean that the bank is bound to pay the debt to the seller when it is due whether or not the customer had paid its value beforehand, then this transaction is a warranty and in principle it is permissible. However, according to the view of the majority of the scholars it is not permissible to take a commission on the warranty but it is permissible for the bank to take a fixed fee for its expenses and this did not happen in the above example.However, if the bank pays on your behalf the installment when it is due and then it takes the amount from you more than what was paid, then this is clear Riba (interest and or usury), because in this case, the bank gave a loan to the client with an interest. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A banquet in the name of a Wali is Shirk
Question 102497: What is the Sharee'ah ruling on having a banquet that is prepared in the name of a certain righteous Wali ('Ally� of Allaah) where there is mixing between men and women and wastage?
Question 102497: What is the Sharee'ah ruling on having a banquet that is prepared in the name of a certain righteous Wali ('Ally� of Allaah) where there is mixing between men and women and wastage?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, the Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. Such banquets are considered to be an evil religious innovation that a Muslim is neither permitted to make, attend or participate in their preparation. Rather, he is required to boycott them and warn others against them because of the false beliefs that underlie them. People who make such banquets are so attached to the dead that they believe in their ability to bring about benefit or inflict harm. This is definite Shirk. Allaah The Almighty Says (what means): {Say, "Surely I invoke only my Lord, and I do not associate with Him anyone." Say, "Indeed, I do not possess for you [the power of] harm or right direction." Say, "Indeed, there will never protect me from Allaah anyone [if I should disobey], nor will I find in other than Him a refuge.} [Quran 72: 20-22] The Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, warned against religious innovations. He said that whoever introduces an act in religion that is not in accordance with his guidance, it would be rejected. [Muslim] He, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, also warned against introducing new matters in religion and clarified that every new matter in religion is considered a religious innovation, and that religious innovations lead astray and consequently lead to Hell. [Muslim]Such banquets are forbidden for the aforementioned reasons in addition to the mixing between the two sexes which is prohibited as well as the squandering of wealth. Allaah The Almighty Says (what means): {And do not spend wastefully. indeed, the wasteful are brothers of the devils, and ever has Satan been to his Lord ungrateful.} [Quran 17: 26-27] Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A baseless claim about entering the mosque in a state of ritual impurity
Question 109389: Assalamu Alaikum, I heard that Jinns can kill human beings in Masjid if he enter the Masjid in impure state{ i.e without woo'du or if ghusl is fardh}. Is this right? Do it have any basis in Islam?
Question 109389: Assalamu Alaikum, I heard that Jinns can kill human beings in Masjid if he enter the Masjid in impure state{ i.e without woo'du or if ghusl is fardh}. Is this right? Do it have any basis in Islam?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.It is permissible for a person to enter the mosque without ablution, as regards entering it while a person is required to perform Ghusl (ritual bath) because of being in a state of sexual defilement or a woman being in menses, then this is not permissible as Allaah Says (what means): {� or in a state of Janaabah (sexual defilement), except those passing through [a place of prayer], until you have washed [your whole body].} [Quran 4:43] Therefore, if a person enters the mosque while he/she is in a state of sexual defilement or a woman being in menses, then he/she is sinful. As regards the claim that jinn may kill whoever enters a mosque without being in a state of ritual purity, then we are not aware of any evidence to support this. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A baseless claim about invalidating marriage
Question 119458: Dear Brother Salam, one of My friend has told that if muslim man marries girl & he has more than 12 children form that girl(Same Girl), They should remarry again. Please reply. I have not heard or...
Question 119458: Dear Brother Salam, one of My friend has told that if muslim man marries girl & he has more than 12 children form that girl(Same Girl), They should remarry again. Please reply. I have not heard or read before about that Thanks & best Regards, Mohammed
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. This statement is baseless and has no foundation. The bond of marriage remains valid between the husband and his wife until he divorces her or that the marriage contract is invalidated due to any of the reasons of invalidating the marriage contract, like apostasy for instance. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A baseless claim about the signs of approaching death
Question 102289: Assalaamu alaikum, Is it true that Allah will give us signs 100 days before we die? One of them is, one part of the body will shake? And it is said, if the person is a good believer, he will take note...
Question 102289: Assalaamu alaikum, Is it true that Allah will give us signs 100 days before we die? One of them is, one part of the body will shake? And it is said, if the person is a good believer, he will take note. But if he is fasiq/not good muslim/etc.. he will not notice or feel anything different. I've never heard of this before and that is why I wish to know. They show a movie on this (on national TV). Will be very grateful if this can be verified. Jazakallah kher.
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. We are not aware of any evidence about this statement and there is no great benefit in investigating it. Rather, a Muslim should be concerned about being better prepared for death as it is coming and there is no escape from it. So, a Muslim should live on faith while being persistent in the obedience of Allaah so that Allaah would take his soul while in this state, i.e. dying while performing a good deed, and what a good end it is! The general rule is that whoever lives upon something, he will die upon it, and whoever dies upon something, he will be resurrected upon it as stated by Ibn Katheer when interpreting the Saying of Allaah (which means): {O you who have believed, fear Allaah as He should be feared and do not die except as Muslims [in submission to Him].}[Quran 3:102] Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A baseless hadeeth about man slapping his wife on her face
Question 100299: Assalaamu alaykum. I was reading one of the articles and the author used the following hadith: "If any man slaps his wife on her face once, Allaah Almighty commands the angel of Hell to slap him on hi...
Question 100299: Assalaamu alaykum. I was reading one of the articles and the author used the following hadith: "If any man slaps his wife on her face once, Allaah Almighty commands the angel of Hell to slap him on his very face seventy times with the Hell Fire." (http://www.islamweb.net/womane/nindex.php?page=readart&id=165347). I cannot seem to find that hadith anywhere. Is it authentic? May Allaah reward you.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger. There is no such hadeeth cited in any of the Sunnah books that we have at hand, so it is impermissible to attribute it to the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam. The article in reference was not produced by the Islamweb staff; rather, it was published on Islamweb by a brother and has been removed. May Allaah reward you for notifying us about it. Allaah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A baseless Hadeeth about the Prophet, sallallaahu �??alayhi wa sallam, receiving a gift of grapes
Question 100402: Is this incident authentic. Please give the reference:QUOTEOne day a poor man brought a bunch of grapes to the Holy Prophet Muhammad (S.A.W.) as a gift.The Holy Prophet (S.A.W.) ate one, two, three an...
Question 100402: Is this incident authentic. Please give the reference:QUOTEOne day a poor man brought a bunch of grapes to the Holy Prophet Muhammad (S.A.W.) as a gift.The Holy Prophet (S.A.W.) ate one, two, three and then the whole bunch of grapes by himself. He did not offer grapes to anyone present.The poor man who brought those grapes was very pleased and left.One of the companions asked, "O prophet of Allah! How come you ate all the grapes by yourself and did not offer to any one of us present?The Holy Prophet (S.A.W.) smiled and said, "I ate all the grapes by myself because the grapes were sour. If I would have offered you, you might have made funny faces and that would have hurt the feelings of that poor man. I thought to myself that it is better that I eat all of them cheerfully and please the poor man. I did not want to hurt the feelings of that poor man.END QUOTE
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. We did not find this Hadeeth in any of the references that we consulted. Evidently, it has no basis.
Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A baseless narration about Abu Bakr, may Allaah be pleased with him
Question 100576: Assalamualaikum. I have heard a hadeeth which stated that Allah swt will come to meet all the inhabitants of jannah and second day Allah swt will come just to meet Abu bakr ra. Is this hadeeth true?? ...
Question 100576: Assalamualaikum. I have heard a hadeeth which stated that Allah swt will come to meet all the inhabitants of jannah and second day Allah swt will come just to meet Abu bakr ra. Is this hadeeth true?? Jazakallah and may Allah bless you all.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.With regard to the believers seeing Allaah in Paradise, then this is something certain beyond any dispute or doubt; we have already clarified this in Fataawa 10911 and 31498.As regards saying that Abu Bakr will particularly see Allaah in Paradise on the second day, then this is something that we have not come across (in the abundant resource books that we have at hand) and we do not think that such a statement is true at all.Nonetheless, the virtues of Abu Bakr are confirmed and so many.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A baseless narration about Jesus, may Allaah exalt his mention
Question 104062: assalamu alaikum . Is thre any ahadeet which tells us that Esa ibn maryam after desending to earth say "ya muhammad".please mention.
Question 104062: assalamu alaikum . Is thre any ahadeet which tells us that Esa ibn maryam after desending to earth say "ya muhammad".please mention.
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. We have not come across any authentic evidence which proves that when 'Eesa (Jesus) will descend at the end of times, he will say "Ya Muhammad" (O Muhammad), and there is no great benefit in investigating such a matter. Nonetheless, there are authentic Ahaadeeth about the descent of 'Eesa and what he will do then; for more benefit in this regard, please refer to Fatwa 115637. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A baseless narration about the excellence of fasting
Question 100752: Is it a correct Hadith?Once Moosa (AS) asked Allah Ta'ala: O Allah ! You have granted me the honor and privilege of talking to you directly, Have you given this privilege to any other person? Allah Ta...
Question 100752: Is it a correct Hadith?Once Moosa (AS) asked Allah Ta'ala: O Allah ! You have granted me the honor and privilege of talking to you directly, Have you given this privilege to any other person? Allah Ta'ala replied, O!! Moosa during the last period I am going to send an ummat, who will be the Ummat of Mohammed (SAW) with dry lips, parched tongues, emaciated body with eyes sunken deep into their sockets, with livers dry and stomachs suffering the pangs of hunger- will call out to me (in dua) they will be much much closer to me than you O Moosa! while you speak to me there are 70000 veils between you and me but at the time of iftaar there will not be a single veil between me and the fasting Ummati of Mohammed (SAW) O!! Moosa I have taken upon myself the responsibility that at the time of iftaar I will never refuse the dua of a fasting person!
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. We have not found this Hadeeth in any of the reliable books of Hadeeth. In Islamqa.com which is supervised by Shaykh Muhammad Saalih Al-Munajjid, it is briefly written: "This Hadeeth is not part of the Prophet�s Sunnah, and it is not something that is known to the scholars of Hadeeth in their books and Musnads. It is not narrated except in a few books whose authors filled them with fabricated narrations, false reports, stories and myths. Moreover, in the text of this Hadeeth there is something which indicates that it is Munkar (i.e. a weak narration which goes against another authentic narration), which is the words "I will be much closer to one of them than you" � referring to Moosa (Moses) . It is well known in Islamic creed that the Messengers and Prophets are better than all other humans, and Moosa is one of the Messengers of strong will, so how is it possible that Allaah is closer to His slaves than to His Prophet Moosa of whom He Said (what means): {And We called him from the side of the mount at [his] right and brought him near, confiding [to him].}[Quran 19:52]? Ibn 'Abbaas, may Allaah be Pleased with him, said: "He drew so close that he heard the scratching of the Pen, i.e. writing the Torah." To sum up: The Hadeeth mentioned is not in any of the reliable books, so it is not permissible to attribute it to the Messenger of Allaah, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, or to believe in what it says." End of quote.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A baseless story about obeying Allaah through intuition
Question 123687: Dear Shaikh, Salaam Alaikum Wa Rahmatullaah ..A story is being circulated in which it says that a scholar spoke about "LISTENING TO ALLAH and OBEYING ALLAH THROUGH INTUITION."Kindly advice IF THIS COU...
Question 123687: Dear Shaikh, Salaam Alaikum Wa Rahmatullaah ..A story is being circulated in which it says that a scholar spoke about "LISTENING TO ALLAH and OBEYING ALLAH THROUGH INTUITION."Kindly advice IF THIS COULD HAPPEN?Jazaak Allaahu Khairan ..
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. We have no knowledge of this story and we do not understand what is meant exactly by listening to Allaah and obeying Him through intuition. If you mean that a man receives the teachings of religion through inspiration without need of the revelation, which is represented in the Quran and Sunnah, then this is a false methodology and a form of misguidance of some extremist Sufis who claim that there is no need for the Sharee�ah since it can be received directly from Lord of the Worlds. In Ibn 'Arabi's book Al-Futoohaat Al-Makkiyyah, Abu Yazeed Al-Bistaami was reported to have said: "You acquired your knowledge from a dead person through a dead person, but we took our knowledge from the Ever-Living One Who never dies. My heart informs me from my Lord, while you say, "So-and-so told me�" Where is this man, now? They say: "He is dead." "Where is the man who told this man?" They say: "He is dead, too!"This statement is clear misguidance and a blatant lie against Allaah, Lord of the Worlds. Allaah The Almighty Says (what means): � {And who is more unjust than one who invents about Allaah untruth.}[Quran 61:7] � {Indeed, those who invent falsehood about Allaah will not succeed. [It is but] a brief enjoyment, and they will have a painful punishment.}[Quran 16:116-117]Allaah The Almighty ordered the believers to obey Him and obey His Messenger, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, and to refer to them in case of dispute. Allaah The Almighty Says (what means): {And if you disagree over anything, refer it to Allaah and the Messenger, if you should believe in Allaah and the Last Day. That is the best [way] and best in result.}[Quran 4:59] It was narrated on the authority of Abu Hurayrah that the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, said: "Indeed, I am leaving for you two things with which you will not go astray; the Book of Allaah and my Sunnah; they will not part until I meet them at the Hawdh (Basin) [i.e. on the Day of Resurrection]." [Al-Haakim, Ad-Daaraqutni and Al-Bayhaqi]It is clear that referring to Allaah The Almighty means referring to the Quran, and referring to the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, after his death means referring to his authentically reported Sunnah. For further information about the reality of Sufism, see Fataawa 82017 and 83615.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A believer must live with hope for reward and fear of punishment
Question 106177: Is a Muslim allowed to not really strive to obtain Paradise but be satisfied with just hoping to enter Paradise by following the basic principles and rules in Islam? That is, if a Muslim is generally ...
Question 106177: Is a Muslim allowed to not really strive to obtain Paradise but be satisfied with just hoping to enter Paradise by following the basic principles and rules in Islam? That is, if a Muslim is generally a good human being and follows the five pillars but not necessarily each and every commandment as revealed in the Quran/Sunnah, then can they hope to reach Paradise? And with this belief that Allaah will forgive shortcomings because one does not commit major sins, can a Muslim live like this? Kindly clarify.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.A person who believes in the oneness of Allaah (i.e. a Muslim) hopes to enter Paradise, but he should not feel assured about his condition because some disobedient people may be punished in Hellfire in order to be purified from their sins if Allaah did not forgive them. Rather, a Muslim should combine between hope and fear and always read the texts of At-Targheeb (encouraging people to do good by mentioning Allaah�s promises and rewards) and At-Tarheeb (warning people from evil by mentioning Allaah�s threats and punishments) and induce himself to abide by all the good deeds and stay away from all sins, and he should not underestimate the small sins, as the Prophet (saw) warned us against the small sins and clarified to us that the accumulation of small sins leads a person to destruction. Abdullah ibn Mas�ood narrated that the Prophet (saw) said, "Beware of underestimating the small sins, for they gather upon a person until he is devastated." And Allaah�s Messenger, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, has coined a similitude for it as a group of people who stopped in a desert and their food was brought forth (to be cooked). So a person would go and bring a twig, and another would go and bring a twig until they altogether gathered a great amount (of twigs). They lit a fire and were able to cook their food well. [Ahmad - Al-Albaani graded it Hasan (good)] Ibn Al-Qayyim said, "Many ignorant people relied on Allaah�s mercy, His forgiveness and His kindness, and they failed to abide by His commands and prohibitions and forgot that Allaah is severe in punishment, and His punishment cannot be repelled by the people who are criminals. If a person relies on mercy while persisting in sin, then he is like a stubborn person. Ma�roof said, 'Your hope for the mercy of the One Whom you disobey is betrayal and foolishness.' Some scholars said, 'The One Who cut a limb from you in this world because of stealing three dirhams, it is not sure that His punishment in the Hereafter will be the same.' Al-Hasan was told, 'We see you crying for long,' and he said, 'I am afraid that He (Allaah) will cast me in the Fire and He would not care,' and he used to say, 'People were distracted by the hope of forgiveness until they died without repentance; as one of them would say: Because I think good of my Lord, but he is a liar, because if he thought good of his Lord, he would have done good.'" [End of quote]Al-Haafith Ibn Hajar said in Al-Fat-h, "Hope means that if someone is negligent about anything, he should think good of Allaah and hope that He will wipe out his sin; similarly, whoever does good wishes that it will be accepted from him. But he who is indulging in sin hoping that he will not be held accountable for it without repenting from it and without stopping to commit the sin, then such a person is in delusion. Abu 'Uthmaan Al-Jeezi said an eloquent statement, 'Among the signs of happiness is to obey and fear that your acts of obedience will not be accepted from you, and among the signs of wretchedness is to disobey and hope that you will be saved from punishment�'" Moreover, persisting in committing small sins makes them great sins, as it was said, "There is no small sin with persistence, and there is no big sin while seeking forgiveness." It is feared that the one who persists in committing small sins will have a bad end to his life, because the one who lives upon something dies upon it. For more benefit, please refer to Fataawa 10116, 83085, 88453 and 92203. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A Believer Who Fears Yielding To Temptation
Question 103670: An Individual may have correct faith, offer Salah 5 times everyday, sometimes missing Fajr and inwardly or outwardly is not against any Laws of Allah's religion. This individual (slave) does not have ...
Question 103670: An Individual may have correct faith, offer Salah 5 times everyday, sometimes missing Fajr and inwardly or outwardly is not against any Laws of Allah's religion. This individual (slave) does not have control over his soul when he is alone and gets excited as electronic media provides many things to excite him and he falls into sinful activities (not of extreme kind which involves punishment), but causes fear of committing such acts before relatives/parents/friends as he has a reputation for being a religious person, having a beard and offering Salah. Is such an act by a religious person an act of Shirk al-Khauf (partners in fears)? Or Riyaa or Is he a liar or a truly Munafiq (hypocrite) person? Will such a person deserve a greater punishment? Will his deeds be in vain? Why so, as he offers Salah and has correct faith (Saheeh Aqeedah)? What is the difference between such a individual and an individual not offering Salah or busy with worldly life?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.
Human beings are certainly prone to evil as the Prophet (saw) said: “Every son of Aadam commits sins, but the best of them is the one who repents to Allah.” [Al-Tirmithi, Ibn Maajah and others]
Abu Hurayrah narrated that the Prophet (saw) said: “If you were not to commit sins, Allah would have swept you out of existence and would have replaced you by another people who have committed sins, and then asked forgiveness from Allah, and He would have granted them pardon.” [Muslim]
There are many other texts proving this meaning. However, a Muslim is obliged not to take sins as an easy matter or to commit them. He does not know if Allah will forgive him, or if he will be blessed by repentance.
Therefore, one should avoid all kinds of sins whether they are minor or major. If one commits sins he should hasten to repent sincerely without any delay; the door of repentance is always open and Allah accepts repentance. One should ask forgiveness from Allah as soon as possible since he does not know when he will breathe his last.
Allah Ordered us to perform good deeds after committing sins. Allah Says (what means): {And establish prayer at the two ends of the day and at the approach of the night. Indeed, good deeds do away with misdeeds. That is a reminder for those who remember. } [Quran 11: 114]
The sins are of two kinds: Minor sins and major sins.
Minor sins have many expiations such as five obligatory prayers, one Friday prayer to the next Friday prayer, fasting in one Ramadan to another Ramadan, steps taken going to the mosque and giving alms, etc.
As for major sins one has to make sincere repentance fulfilling its conditions, such as feeling sorry for what happened, taking a firm decision not to return to that sin and giving up the sin.
If a person commits a sin he should cover himself and should not inform others. The Prophet (saw) said: “All the sins of my followers will be forgiven except those who commit sins openly or disclose their sins to the people. An example of such disclosure is that a person commits a sin by night and though Allah screened it from the public, then he comes in the morning, and says, "O so-and-so, I did such-and-such (evil) deed yesterday'; though he spent his night screened by his Lord (none knowing about his sin) and in the morning he removes Allah's screen from himself.” [Al-Bukhari and Muslim]
For the above reason, concealing sin and disliking it to be known by people is neither hypocrisy nor Shirk (making partner in worship). But insisting on this practice might end in those results.
'Riya' means showing off one's actions such as lengthening one's prayer or making a pleasant tone while reciting the Quran etc, in the presence of someone.
Know that the difference between such a person and the one who neglects prayers is great; there is no comparison between them.
For more benefit on the ruling on abandoning the prayer or delaying it, please refer to Fataawa 384457, 377344, 81555, 88016, 84178, 83565, 87587, 90926, 88690 and 84403.
Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A believer�??s paradise in worldly life is immediate reward
Question 106982: Ibn Taymiyyah, may Allaah have mercy upon him, said that there is a paradise in the worldly life; the one who does not enter it will not enter the Paradise of the Hereafter. What is this Paradise?
Question 106982: Ibn Taymiyyah, may Allaah have mercy upon him, said that there is a paradise in the worldly life; the one who does not enter it will not enter the Paradise of the Hereafter. What is this Paradise?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. The paradise of the worldly life is belief in Allaah The Almighty, drawing near to Him, loving Him, being satisfied with His Decree, along with the other characteristics of faith. This is the meaning intended by Ibn Taymiyyah behind these words. Ibn Al-Qayyim narrated this statement from his Shaykh, Ibn Taymiyyah . Ibn Al-Qayyim pointed out that frequently remembering Allaah The Almighty and filling the heart with love for Him and the pleasure of knowing Him are the immediate rewards for the Muslim in this worldly life that make him enjoy a pleasant life, such that even kings do not enjoy. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A bequest that contradicts the Islamic law is not to be executed
Question 115150: Assalaamu 'Alaykum; Please calculate the inheritance according to the following information -Does the deceased have male relatives who are entitled to inherit: (A son) Number 1 -Does the deceased have...
Question 115150: Assalaamu 'Alaykum; Please calculate the inheritance according to the following information -Does the deceased have male relatives who are entitled to inherit: (A son) Number 1 -Does the deceased have female relatives who are entitled to inherit : (A daughter) Number 1 - The will which the deceased left behind and that is related to his inheritance is : The son is from the deceased first wife and the daughter is from the second wife. The deceased made a will not according to Sharia law. In the will it said excluding the son from properties the deceased had. But he had 2 plots which he didn't mention in the will and every one knew it was for the son the deceased second wife has also died leaving all the assets to her only daughter who is 14 years old, but the son from the first wife is 27 years old. What shd the son inherit. The deceased used to always take care of the son he was sending him every month.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and messenger. No consideration is to be given to the deceased's instruction to exclude his son from the inheritance; the instruction of Allaah should be put into effect instead. Allaah says (what means): {Allaah instructs you concerning your children [i.e. their portions of inheritance]: for the male, what is equal to the share of two females.}[Quran 4:11] Hence, the son inherits from the entire estate left by his father without any exception. The fact that the son is from one wife and the daughter is from another wife does not affect the inheritance as both of them are children of the deceased and he is their father, and they both inherit from him based on lineage. Therefore, if the deceased did not leave any other heirs except those mentioned in the question, then the inheritance should be divided between the son and the daughter by Ta�seeb (by virtue of having a paternal relation with the deceased and not having an allotted share, so they get what is left after the allotted shares have been distributed); the male is entitled to a share two times that of the female, as per the above verse. Hence, the entire inheritance should be divided into 3 shares, the son gets 2 shares and the daughter gets 1 share. Finally, it should be noted, dear sister, that the issue of inheritance is very complex, so a mere Fatwa, which is an answer issued according to the question, is not enough. Rather, the matter should be referred to an Islamic court to look into the case and investigate, as there may be an heir who would not be known except after investigation, and there might also be a will, debts, or other dues that are not known to the heirs. It is known that these rights take priority to the right of the heirs in the inheritance. Therefore, the inheritance should not be divided without resorting to an Islamic court, if any, in order to fulfill the interests of both the living and the dead. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A bequest to a non-heir is valid
Question 115072: My husband comes from a family of three brothers and one sister. His elder brother passed away before his parents, however, his father wanted to give the brother's wife and children his son's share. I...
Question 115072: My husband comes from a family of three brothers and one sister. His elder brother passed away before his parents, however, his father wanted to give the brother's wife and children his son's share. India, they follow the Islamic law. After my husband's parents passed away, it was divided as per his father's wishes and for this my husband was happy with at that time. With their share my husband's younger brother bought them three homes, one they live in and two they receive rent. His sister in law also has inheritance of a home from her parents. His niece got married to a wealthy man and his nephew hold a degree in computer science and MBA, thus makes good money. With my husband's inheritance his brother bought a land that is not of any use to us. My husband is a cancer patient and we are living in welfare in the US. We can't even maintain small things and are in help from others. His family knows about what we go through but they do not care. They don't call to see how he is doing. Is it permissible to take his share that he thought of as his brother's from his sister in law? Will Allah SWT be angry with us. Please answer our question, Jazakallahu Khiran.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. We understood from the question that your husband's father made a bequest for his dead son's family to take his share of his father's estate (which he would have been entitled to had he outlived his father). If this is the case, then this is a valid and binding bequest because it is made to non-heirs. The deceased son's wife is not among the heirs of the father and his children are excluded by the presence of the deceased's living son as underlined in Fatwa 90126. Since the dead son's wife and children are not among the heirs, the bequest made to them is valid and binding. Ibn Qudaamah said: "If the deceased made a bequest for a non-heir to take an equal share to that of a specific heir, then the beneficiary of the bequest is entitled to that share and it should be deducted before the division of the estate (among the heirs). This is the opinion of the majority of the scholars and was adopted by Abu Haneefah and Ash-Shaafi'i." [Al-Mughni] However, the bequest should not be executed if it exceeds one-third of the estate. It should be highlighted, though, that such cases are rather critical and complex, requiring careful investigation. They should be referred to competent scholars who should be consulted directly and informed of a detailed account of the situation with no ambiguity so that they can identify the heirs and whether the bequest exceeds one-third of the estate or not. Lastly, we implore Allaah to bless your husband with recovery. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A bequest to a spouse who is the only heir
Question 115074: Salam aleikum wa rahmatullahi, Dear brother/sister, I'm a reverted Dutch muslima for more than 10 years, Alhamdulillah. My age is 65, Alhamdulillah. I'm the only one in the family who embraced Islam. ...
Question 115074: Salam aleikum wa rahmatullahi, Dear brother/sister, I'm a reverted Dutch muslima for more than 10 years, Alhamdulillah. My age is 65, Alhamdulillah. I'm the only one in the family who embraced Islam. For 8 years ago I married a moslim from Turkey, Alhamdulillah, may Allah reward him for his concern about me. My husband is many years younger than me, so it is possible that I'll leave this world a long time before him. Only Allah knows who will die first, but I have to know all options about that. I own a house in Turkey, and I paid this house from my own money. Is it possible that I can write a will for him? I have one kid, a son, he is 45 years old and as I said before, he is not muslim and also not interested in Islam. Anyway, we have a very good relationship. His father died already for many years ago. There are no other relatives, only his son, my grandson. The question is, have my husband to sell my house after I died? My husband want everything to arrange in islamic way because he is afraid for to do something wrong. Have I to write for him a will as well so he can stay in this house till his dead? And how I have to share the parts? 50/50? Also it is possible that my husband will die before me. Only Allah knows. Have I to write a will, so my son will have all what I left after I died? And if this is not allowed, what I have to do? Insha' Allah you have a clear answer for me, because it is a real problem for us, how to solve this in a good way. May Allah reward you with all the best, in this world and in the hereafter. wa salam aleikum your sister in Islam
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.First of all, we praise Allaah Who has guided you to Islam and we ask Him to make us and you firm in it until we meet Him while He is pleased with us. Our answer to your questions is summarized in the following points.1) It is known that the inheritance is divided among the heirs after the death of the person, so if it is only your husband who will inherit from you after your death, then he is entitled to half of the inheritance: he takes half of the house and half of everything else in the inheritance. As regards whether or not you may make a bequest to your husband of the house or anything else from the inheritance, the scholars stated that a bequest from one spouse to the other spouse if he/she has no other heir is forbidden, but it was also said that it is only disliked (not forbidden). However, if a bequest is made to him, he may accept it.The author of Kashshaaf Al-Qinaa', a Hanbali book, said: "If one of the spouses makes a bequest to the other of all his property and he, i.e. the testator, has no other heir, then the beneficiary of the bequest is entitled to all of the property as his prescribed share in inheritance and as a bequest. However, the bequest is forbidden according to the correct opinion of the (Hanbali) School; this is stated (by Imaam Ahmad), as he (Al-Mardaawi) said in his book Al-Insaaf; and it was also said that it is disliked. Al-Insaaf reads: 'This (the view that it is disliked) is more preponderant (than the view that it is forbidden); and if it was said that this is permissible, it would also be reasonable." [End of quote] Hence, according to the view that it is disliked or permissible, it is permissible for you to make a bequest to your husband as long as he is the only heir who is entitled to inherit from you according to the Islamic inheritance law.2) Your son does not inherit from you as long as he is a non-Muslim because a non-Muslim does not inherit from a Muslim according to the consensus of the scholars pursuant to the Hadeeth which reads "A non-Muslim does not inherit from a Muslim." [Al-Bukhari and Muslim] However, it is permissible for you to make a bequest to your son of no more than a third of the inheritance, as the bequest of a Muslim to a non-belligerent non-Muslim is a valid bequest, because the Mother of the Believers Safiyyah bint Huyayy made a bequest to some of her Jewish relatives. Ibn Qudaamah said in Al-Mughni: "The bequest of a Muslim to a non-believing beneficiary of the Islamic protection (Dhimmah)�. The permissibility of the bequest of a Muslim to a non-believing beneficiary of the Islamic protection (Dhimmah) was reported from Shurayh, Ash-Sha'bi, Ath-Thawri, Ash-Shaafi'i, Is-haaq and the scholars of the Hanafi School; we do not know of any difference of opinion from other scholars. Muhammad ibn Al-Hanafiyyah, 'Ataa� and Qutaadah said about the words of Allaah (which mean): {�except that you may do to your close associates a kindness [through bequest].} [Quran 33:6] � they said: it is the bequest of a Muslim to a Jew or a Christian. Sa'eed said: 'Sufyaan from Ayyoob from 'Ikrimah reported to us that Safiyyah bint Huyayy sold her chambers to Mu'aawiyah for 100,000 and she had a Jewish brother, so she invited him to Islam so that he would inherit from her but he refused, so she made a bequest to him of a third of the 100,000." [End of quote]For more benefit, please refer to Fatwa 96163. 3) As regards whether or not you may write a bequest to your son to take everything that you leave after your death, the answer is that a bequest of more than a third from someone who has an heir is forbidden in the Islamic inheritance law, even if the heir is only one person � namely your husband. Ibn Qudaamah said in Al-Mughni about the prohibition of a bequest of more than a third for someone who has an heir: "If she has a husband or if a man has a wife, then it is the same thing (i.e. the bequest of more than a third is forbidden), because the bequest undermines his right, as he is entitled to his share after the distribution of the bequest. Allaah says (what means): {�after any bequest he [may have] made or debt.} [Quran 4:11]." [End of quote] Since your husband is going to inherit from you, it is not permissible for you to make a bequest to your son of more than a third.However, if your husband dies before you and you do not have any heir at all, and you want to make a bequest to your non-Muslim son of the entire inheritance, then the scholars differed in opinion about the permissibility of this; some of them prohibited it and some of them permitted it. The permissibility of this is the view favored by Ibn al-Qayyim in his book Zaad al-Ma'aad. He said: "If the sick person who does not have an heir wants to make a bequest of his entire inheritance to be spent in charity, then is he permitted to do so? There are two views: the more correct view is that he is permitted to do so, because he is prevented in the Sharee'ah from giving more than a third when he has heirs, but if someone does not have any heir at all, then there is no objection to what he does with his property."Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A biological father as a guardian of marriage
Question 119506: Assalamualaikum I asked a girl to marry me who is muslim. Alhamdulillah she has said yes. But then she told me that she was born out of wedlock, her father married her mother after she was born. I hav...
Question 119506: Assalamualaikum I asked a girl to marry me who is muslim. Alhamdulillah she has said yes. But then she told me that she was born out of wedlock, her father married her mother after she was born. I have 2 questions which i have tried to find answers for. 1) During the marriage contract, can she put her fathers name? In my country, we announce our intention to marry each other publicly in front of guests and we say our name and fathers name. I have read in many places that the father has no right. But i fear that it would embarass my wife to be (inshAllah) to publicly admit that she was an illegitimate child. She should not bear the shame of her parents sins. 2) Can her father be her wali? I have looked for the answers to ensure my nikah will be valid in the eyes of Allah SWT. Please help me.
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.A child born out of Zina (fornication and/or adultery) should be traced back to his/her mother and he/she has nothing to do with the man who committed Zina (fornication or adultery) with his/her mother, as we clarified in Fatwa 89082.This is the ruling that we adopt here in Islamweb and it is the view of the majority of the jurists . However, some scholars are of the view that if the fornicator [or adulterer] demands that the child be traced back to him, then he is traced back to him. According to this opinion, it is permissible for this girl to be traced back to that man.Nonetheless, it is possible for this girl to choose any general surname, like calling herself daughter of 'Abdullaah, or daughter of 'Abdur-Rahmaan and so forth in order to avoid being embarrassed, without mentioning that she was born out of wedlock. For more benefit, please refer to Fatwa 134703.Besides, if a woman does not have a guardian, she may appoint a righteous Muslim man to be her guardian. Imaam Ahmad said: "If a woman appoints a righteous Muslim man to represent her in such a case, then it is permissible." Therefore, if that man is a Muslim, she may appoint him to be her guardian in the marriage contract. However, if he is a non-Muslim, then she should appoint someone else because being a Muslim is a condition for someone to be a guardian of a Muslim woman.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A Book with a Picture of an Unveiled Woman
Question 124081: Salam. Is it permissible for a child who is 11 years old to show a book that has a cover of an unveiled woman that they like/love this book online?
Question 124081: Salam. Is it permissible for a child who is 11 years old to show a book that has a cover of an unveiled woman that they like/love this book online?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.It appears to us �Allah knows best �that if this book includes a useful content that is not found in other books, then there is no harm in benefitting from it and presenting it to the public even with the existence of this picture.The presence of such images in some books, especially the scientific ones, is something which has become widespread and it is very difficult to avoid. Forbidding them in this case would make things difficult for the nation.In addition to this, (when buying the book) these images are not the intention behind buying (or reading) them, and it is not possible to avoid them.Indeed hardship entails easiness, as in the famous jurisprudence rule.Shaykh Ibn 'Uthaymeen distinguished between magazines and newspapers that were prepared for photography (to display pictures), and magazines that were not prepared for photography, but they include pictures in them. He stated that the first type is forbidden to buy, sell, and keep; whereas the second type is not.It should be noted that this child at this age has most likely not reached the age of puberty, so there is no sin on him in at all. Indeed, in the event of forbidden matters, the guardian is not allowed to enable him to do that or get exposed to them, as stated by the scholars.Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A borrowed motor got damaged
Question 115989: Assalaam Alykum, I have borrowed a motor driven item from one of my friend while using it the motor got damaged(Burn off) Am I entitle to reimburse my friend for it? What if my friend wants a replacem...
Question 115989: Assalaam Alykum, I have borrowed a motor driven item from one of my friend while using it the motor got damaged(Burn off) Am I entitle to reimburse my friend for it? What if my friend wants a replacement of it? Is shariah allow one to claim replacement of the damaged item? Jazaak Allah Khair
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. The jurists differed in opinion about the ruling on guaranteeing a borrowed item if it is damaged or lost while it is at the hand of the borrower. Ash-Shaafi�i and Ahmad are of the view that the borrower is obliged to guarantee the item whether or not he is negligent about its damage or loss. However, Abu Haneefah and Maalik are of the view that the borrower is not obliged to guarantee the item unless there is negligence or transgression, negligence is related to preserving the item and transgression is related to using it.The most preponderant opinion �Allaah Knows best �is the first opinion, because the Prophet (saw) borrowed some shields on the day of (the battle of) Hunayn from Safwaan ibn Umayyah and then Safwaan asked him: "Are you taking them (shields) by force, O Muhammad." Thereupon, the Prophet (saw) said: "Rather, it is a guaranteed borrowed item." [Abu Daawood] Furthermore, Samurah narrated that the Prophet (saw) said: "A hand is responsible for what it has taken until it gives it back." [Abu Daawood and At-Tirmithi] Ibn Qudaamah said: "This is because he (the borrower) took the property of others for his own benefit while benefitting from it by himself only, without deserving it and without permission in causing damage to it, so he guarantees it just like a usurped item or something that is taken for trial when one wants to buy it." Therefore, the owner of the borrowed item has the right to ask for guarantee, and the person who borrowed the item is obliged to guarantee it whether or not he misused it. In the situation given in the question, what should be done is what is known in the custom of the jurists as Arsh (monetary compensation), which is that the car should be valued before the damage (the burning of the engine) and it should be valued as well after the damage, and then the borrower is obliged to pay the difference between the two values. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A borrower has to pay back the same amount of loan regardless of inflation
Question 115881: Assalam alaikum, My uncle (father's brother) helped my father to buy a flat in Bombay by paying full amount of Rs.22,000/- in 1970. He told my father to consider half amount of flat (Rs.11,000/-) as a...
Question 115881: Assalam alaikum, My uncle (father's brother) helped my father to buy a flat in Bombay by paying full amount of Rs.22,000/- in 1970. He told my father to consider half amount of flat (Rs.11,000/-) as a gift and balance half amount as a loan. My father returned Rs.3000/- in three years when a dispute came between them regarding my grandfather's property and my father stopped paying him balance amount. After few years my uncle died. Now my uncle's son is demanding balance amount in terms of current property rate. At present the price of flat is Rs.70,00,000/-, so how much loan amount to be returned to him?, Jazakallah
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. A loan has to be repaid in the same amount (as it was taken) and not according to its current value, as was clarified in Fatwa 87651. Therefore, you are obliged to repay the same amount that your uncle had lent to your father. If your father had returned Rs 3,000 then you should return Rs 8,000 only, and you are obliged to return it to the heirs of your uncle.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A Boy Below the Age of Puberty Is Not a Valid Witness to the Marriage Contract
Question 117197: Assalamualaikum,I am sorry to say that I have not received answer of my question .You only give reference of an existing fatwa.My question is whether an immature boy of 12 years can act as witness of ...
Question 117197: Assalamualaikum,I am sorry to say that I have not received answer of my question .You only give reference of an existing fatwa.My question is whether an immature boy of 12 years can act as witness of marriage.please reply it's very urgent.Do not give an existing fatwa.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger.There are several conditions stipulated for the (validity of the testimony of the) two witnesses to a marriage contract. One of these conditions is reaching puberty. A young boy who has not reached puberty is not a valid witness to the marriage contract, and the supportive evidence to the condition of attaining puberty is the Saying of Allah, The Exalted, (what means): {And bring to witness two witnesses from among your men.} [Quran 2:282] The word 'men� here indicates that a witness must be an adult; therefore, young boys are excluded. Further evidence is the following Hadeeth of the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam: "The pen is lifted from (writing the deeds of) three people (i.e. they are excused by Allah and will not be held accountable for their actions) � a child till he becomes adult �" [Ibn Maajah and others] Moreover, a young boy is not entrusted to guard his own wealth (being a minor), so he should not be entrusted with preserving the rights of other people with greater reason. Bearing this in mind, and in light of the mentioned information that this marriage was not conducted with the permission of the woman�s Wali (guardian), then that indicates that this marriage is invalid. It falls under the category of the marriage upon whose validity scholars held different views. A weak view was reported regarding the validity of a marriage contract conducted without (fulfilling the conditions of) the Wali and witnesses, contrary to the opinion of the majority of the scholars in this regard. There is also a narration reported on the authority of Imaam Ahmad that the testimony of a young boy is valid if he reaches ten or twelve years of age. A marriage whose invalidity is subject to different scholarly opinions requires a divorce. Ibn Qudaamah said: "If a woman marries a man with a defective marriage contract, it is not permissible to marry her off to someone else until the first one divorces her or annuls her marriage contract..." [End of quote] Allah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A bridal ceremony should not be postponed for more than three days after a death
Question 111564: My paternal female cousin died on Monday and my bridal ceremony will be held on Thursday. What should I do? Is it better to postpone or complete it? I heard that there is no impediment from holding a ...
Question 111564: My paternal female cousin died on Monday and my bridal ceremony will be held on Thursday. What should I do? Is it better to postpone or complete it? I heard that there is no impediment from holding a party on such occasions three days after condolences. Is there any Hadeeth in this respect? Advise me, may Allaah The Almighty reward you.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and messenger.There is no forbiddance to hold a bridal ceremony at any time after the death of anyone other than a husband. Being so, the basic rule is that it is lawful and permissible. But there is no harm to observe the feelings of the family of the deceased by postponing the wedding party for three days after the death since it is the period of condolence.Nevertheless, it should not be postponed more than three days because it is impermissible for the family of the deceased, let alone others, to mourn beyond three days. In his explanation of Sunan Abu Daawood, Al-'Atheem Abaadi says: "It indicates that mourning and weeping without wailing over the dead is permissible for three days only."Hence, there is no blame on you to hold your bridal ceremony at the aforementioned time.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A bride and groom want to never consummate marriage
Question 118745: Assalamualaikum, Is it haram to NEVER consummate a marriage? What is if this condition was mentioned to the groom before marriage and he agreed to it?Is it wrong, if the couple decides to get married ...
Question 118745: Assalamualaikum, Is it haram to NEVER consummate a marriage? What is if this condition was mentioned to the groom before marriage and he agreed to it?Is it wrong, if the couple decides to get married only to complete half of their deen and not to engage in reproduction or intimacy ?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His Slave and Messenger. If what is meant by not consummating the marriage is that the spouses do not enjoy each other, then such a condition is invalid because it runs counter to the purpose of the marriage contract; however, it does not affect the validity of the marriage if the prescribed conditions of the marriage contract are met. Please refer to Fatwa 131714. One should seek to achieve the objectives of marriage if possible, such as keeping oneself chaste, having many offspring and other virtuous objectives of marriage which we have already clarified in Fatwa 91412. A Muslim achieving half of the religion by getting married is related to guarding chastity and thus attaining piety. Al-Munaawi said in Faidh Al-Qadeer: "Abu Haatim said: 'What keeps one's religion correct in general is his private parts and his stomach, and marriage suffices for one of those.'" On the other hand, abandoning intercourse is permissible if the person is not afraid of temptation; however, it is a right of each spouse on the other so it is not permissible to withhold it without his/her consent. Also, totally abandoning procreation is not permissible except for a necessity. For more benefit, please refer to Fataawa 86253 and 86967. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A bridegroom delaying deflowering his bride
Question 120110: Assalamoualikum I just get married, me and my husband want to take our full time in order that i get deflowered. But my family and his family urges us to complete this quickly , they ask us everyday w...
Question 120110: Assalamoualikum I just get married, me and my husband want to take our full time in order that i get deflowered. But my family and his family urges us to complete this quickly , they ask us everyday whether its already done. Please advice us , can we lie to them , telling them its already done, because its a personel matter that we want to share only between us
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. It is not permissible to mention the details of what happens during intercourse between spouses, and it is not permissible for anyone to ask them about this matter. The matter of deflowering is included in this. It is confirmed that the Prophet (saw) likened spreading such a secret to an awful thing as he (saw) said: "A person who does this (spreads such a secret) is like a male devil who met a female devil in the street and had sexual intercourse with her." Therefore, you should advise your family and his and clarify to them that it is not permissible to ask about such matters. As regards delaying the matter of deflowering, this is permissible but you should not delay it without a necessity as this may lead to missing many objectives of marriage, by delaying having children and preventing from full enjoyment and so forth. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A brief biography of �??Abdullaah ibn �??Umar, may Allaah be pleased with him
Question 104839: Salams. Can you please give me the biography of Abdullah bin umar? Who was he and what authority in Islam? jazak Allah khair.
Question 104839: Salams. Can you please give me the biography of Abdullah bin umar? Who was he and what authority in Islam? jazak Allah khair.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.'Abdullaah ibn 'Umar ibn Al-Khattaab ibn 'Abdul 'Uzza Abu Abdur-Rahmaan Al-Qurashi Al-'Adawi Al-Makki, the Meccan and later the Madenite, was among the learned Companions. He converted to Islam at a very young age and then migrated with his father before reaching the age of puberty. He was deemed too young to fight during the Battle of Uhud, so his first battle was Al-Khandaq (the Trench). He was among those who pledged allegiance to the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, under the tree. His mother was Zaynab bint Math'oon. He related much knowledge from the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, and from his father 'Umar, Abu Bakr and 'Uthmaan, as well as from many senior Companions . Reputable Successors (Taabi'oon), such as Sa'eed ibn Al-Musayyib, Thaabit Al-Bunaani, Taawoos, Az-Zuhri, Muhammad ibn Seereen, Naafi' (his servant), Mujaahid, and others, were among those who related from him. 'Abdullaah ibn 'Umar ibn Al-Khattaab was known for his asceticism, virtuousness, generosity, spending in Allaah's cause, knowledge and piety, and for his strong desire to exemplify the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, and follow his tracks in even the most subtle matters. He was also known for abundant worship, such as praying at night and fasting during the day, and performing Hajj every year. This is a brief overview about his life, his status in Islam and his virtues. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A Broker and Selling Property To People Who Use Riba-Based Banks
Question 114227: Is it halal? Being a broker and selling property to non muslims knowingly that the non muslims use the banking system which is based on interest or riba i. E that they take loans based on riba to buy ...
Question 114227: Is it halal? Being a broker and selling property to non muslims knowingly that the non muslims use the banking system which is based on interest or riba i. E that they take loans based on riba to buy a property. Is the income from selling property to non muslims which is in the form of a commission halal?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah, and that Muhammad, (saw) is His slave and Messenger. You mentioned in your question that your work as a broker would be limited to selling property and the like of lawful things. If this is the case, then there is nothing wrong with that or with your earnings from it. The fact that most people in that country take interest-based loans to buy property and that the buyers often pay with the money of interest-based loans; this does not affect the permissibility of working as a real estate broker and mediator in the sale transaction. This is because you engage in a lawful transaction with the seller and buyer, and you do not act as a mediator in a sale of a prohibited commodity or guide them to it. The fact that the buyer borrowed the money through an interest-based contract is his own responsibility, and it is permissible for you to deal with him using the money that he possessed through Riba, especially if he is a non-Muslim. The Prophet (saw) used to engage in financial transactions with the Jews. He (saw) used to buy from them and accept their gifts although they consumed usurious interest. Ibn Al-‘Arabi said in Ahkaam Al-Qur’aan: “The most correct view is that it is permissible to engage in financial transactions with them, despite their engagement in interest-based transactions and committing what Allah, The Exalted, prohibited them from doing. This is established with decisive evidence from the Quran and Sunnah … It was narrated that ‘Umar ibn Al-Khattab was once asked about taking the price of Khamr (intoxicant drinks) when collecting Jizyah payment and when trading, and he replied, ‘Leave them to sell it and take from them one-tenth of the price …’” [End of quote]Allah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A broker guarantees profits
Question 116611: The forex market is equated to gambling (people might win or lose money) but I have found a broker who is guaranteeing profits. If he goes into loss, he will simply return my money. The profits that I...
Question 116611: The forex market is equated to gambling (people might win or lose money) but I have found a broker who is guaranteeing profits. If he goes into loss, he will simply return my money. The profits that I get are calculated on the amount of investments I make, not the profits that he makes. Is it Halal?
Answer: Praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all his Family and Companions.Investing money in the market you described is Haram as it is a form of gambling. Allah says: "O you who believe! Intoxicants (all kinds of alcoholic drinks), gambling, AlAnsab, and AlAzlam (arrows for seeking luck or decision) are an abomination of Shaitan's (Satan) handiwork. So avoid (strictly all) that (abomination) in order that you may be successful. (Al-Ma'idah 5:90)In addition, the form in which the broker ensures the money is unlawful as well for two reasons: First because the profit is calculated on basis of the capital not on the basis of the benefits that were actually gained. It is unlawful in partnership to fix a given profit on the basis of the percentage of the capital because this contradicts the principle of risk on which partnership is founded in the first place (which is to accept to bear the profits and losses according to the known fixed percentage of benefit.Second, it is unlawful to guarantee the capital as mentioned earlier.Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A broker may take a commission, but an employee may not
Question 115491: As Salaam o alaikom, My husband deals in manufacture of packaging goods. Sometimes he has to deal with the manager for orders , of which some are non muslims and are open to commission to give orders....
Question 115491: As Salaam o alaikom, My husband deals in manufacture of packaging goods. Sometimes he has to deal with the manager for orders , of which some are non muslims and are open to commission to give orders. Is it permissible to give them commission for getting orders, where he will supply a good quality product at reasonable price. Secondly, there are some agents who do not work under any company but get orders, act as middlemen and charge commission for there work. Is it permissible? Lastly if my husband is happy with the subordinate staff who are no where connected to helping in giving order. Just as appreciation if he gives a diary as gift once in a year. Is it permissible? Please answer my queries soon... Jazak Allah Khair.
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, the Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. What is given to an employee for his profession and his job � as in the case of these managers and agents � is considered a bribery that is forbidden to give or to take. The Prophet (saw) said: "The gifts for workers are considered as taking money illegally." [Ahmad] Besides, it is reported that the Prophet (saw) appointed a man named Ibn Al-Lutbiyyah, from Al-Azd tribe, to collect the Zakah. When he came forth (after collections) he said: "This is for you and this was given to me as a gift." So the Prophet, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, stood and spoke, saying: "Why didn't he remain in his father's house or his mother's house and see whether gifts would be given to him or not?" [Al-Bukhari and Muslim]As for the brokers, then if they are really brokers and not employed agents like the case of those whom you mentioned in the question, then your husband may pay them a commission in return for them bringing him people who would buy goods from him. This is a type of brokery which is lawful whether it is with a fee or without a fee (paid or unpaid). "Ibn Seereen, 'Ataa�, Ibraaheem, and Al-Hasan did not see anything wrong for a broker to take a commission." [Al-Bukhari] As regards the diary, then gifting it and accepting it as a gift is permissible and we do not see anything wrong with it. It is a custom for commercial companies and corporations to offer such gifts as promotional material and the like and this does not lead to any harm. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A broker must be truthful and honest
Question 116138: salamw alaekwem i am a car sales person and may quastion is when i am with a customer and some times i have to some body yalse help me if am having hard time or when i bring them in the building so so...
Question 116138: salamw alaekwem i am a car sales person and may quastion is when i am with a customer and some times i have to some body yalse help me if am having hard time or when i bring them in the building so some times the maneger will come in so he can close them so they can buy the car so in that time some times the lie to the coustomer and if the coustomer buy the car i gette my commision from it is this halal or halam nso iam not working wright know if you can answere me pleace aslamw alaemwem may allah give you gys janna. and please dont put this on web
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger. Your work is acting as a broker between the buyer and the seller and this work should be based on truthfulness and honesty. The customer or the client (usually) believes the broker in this sale. Therefore, if the broker knows that there is a fault or deficiency in the goods, or knows that the director of the company lies to the customer, then the broker is not permitted to conceal the deficiency or to accept the lies of the director. As regards the commission that the agent (broker) gets from the company, then it is permissible as he receives it in return for a permissible work. The fact that the director lies to the customer does not affect the permissibility of the commission he gets, however, he [broker] is obliged to advise the buyer when it Islamically becomes obligatory to do so. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A brother and sister bathing together
Question 107547: Can a brother and sister take bath together and saw each other's body?
Question 107547: Can a brother and sister take bath together and saw each other's body?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger. We ask Allaah to exalt his mention as well as that of his family and all his companions.It is not permissible for a brother and sister who are adult to bath together in a way that one could see the 'Awrah (parts of the body that should be covered in Islam) of the other, as the Prophet (saw) said: "Conceal your 'Awrah except from your wife and from what your right hand possess.'' [Ahmad & Abu Daawood].
Therefore, it is not permissible for a man to reveal his 'Awrah to other than his wife. Similarly, a wife is not permitted to reveal her body to anyone other than her husband. Also, it is not permissible for the guardian of these young children to allow them to bath together if they have reached the age of distinction.
For more benefit on the 'Awrah of a woman in front of her Mahaarim (i.e. plural of Mahram, who is a spouse or a person whom one is permanently prohibited from marrying due to suckling, marital, or blood relations), please refer to Fatwa 90591.
Finally, it should be mentioned that if the brother and sister are below the age of distinction, like being two years old, then it is permissible for them to be uncovered in front of each other and bath together.
For more benefit, please refer to Fatwa 85134.
Allaah Knows best.
(Source: islam_web)
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A brother beats his sister and abuses her and no one stops him
Question 118543: If a sister is being beaten and physically abused by her brother and no one in the family or society does anything to stop it and she cannot approach the local police, authorities or scholars, what sh...
Question 118543: If a sister is being beaten and physically abused by her brother and no one in the family or society does anything to stop it and she cannot approach the local police, authorities or scholars, what should she do? Fight back and get beaten more or try to remain patient and what would help her keep her sanity?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. If this brother harms his sister and beats her unjustly, then this is a great evil. She should advise him and frighten him of Allaah The Almighty and remind him that Allaah The Almighty is more capable over him than he is over her. She should seek the help of Allaah The Almighty to repel his harm off of her and supplicate with the following supplication: Abu Moosa Al-Ash�ari narrated that when the Prophet (saw) feared a man or a people, he would say: "O Allaah, we ask You to face them and we seek refuge in You from their evil." [Ahmad and Abu Dawood] Resorting to Allaah The Almighty and seeking His help would preserve her sanity; Allaah The Almighty says (what means): {Those who have believed and whose hearts are assured by the remembrance of Allaah. Unquestionably by the remembrance of Allaah hearts are assured."}[Quran 13:28] Along with this, she should use legitimate material means among which is to seek the help of some righteous people whom her brother respects, and it is acceptable to threaten him to take the matter to the authorities as this may deter him. However, it is not wise that she deals with him in the same manner and beats him as this would result in greater harm. If she can find a safe place with a trusted relative, a pious sister or trustworthy Islamic Center, then she may stay there. On the other hand, preventing this brother from injustice and defending the oppressed is an Islamic requirement. Anas narrated that the Prophet (saw) said: "Support your brother whether he is the oppressor or the oppressed." They said: "O, Messenger of Allaah, we support him if he is oppressed, but how could we support him if he is the oppressor?" He said: ''By stopping him," i.e. by preventing him from being an oppressor." [Al-Bukhari and Muslim] This type of support falls within enjoining good and forbidding evil and the conditions for it to be an obligation are the same that must be met in enjoining good and forbidding evil, like being able to do so and being safe from considerable harm. An-Nawawi said: "Supporting the oppressed is among the communal obligations, and this falls within enjoining good and forbidding evil, but the order to do it is for whoever is able to do it while he does not fear any harm." Therefore, if someone is able to support the oppressed and he does not fear any definite or probable harm by doing so, then he is obliged to do so, otherwise he would be sinful for neglecting to do so. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A brother touching his sister with lust
Question 120311: plz let me know that is there any complications and problem occurs if a brother touches his sister with lust and dsire, plz reply is there any problem occurs between their relatiuonships and with thei...
Question 120311: plz let me know that is there any complications and problem occurs if a brother touches his sister with lust and dsire, plz reply is there any problem occurs between their relatiuonships and with their parents?
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger. The things which lead to Zinaa (fornication or adultery), like touching a marriageable woman and the like, are forbidden and it is not permissible for a person to do them as they lead to Zinaa. If these things happen between a man and his Mahaarim (i.e. plural of Mahram, who is a person whom one is permanently prohibited from marrying due to suckling, marital, or blood relations), then this is more abominable and more sinful. This is evidence of the deterioration of one's Fitrah (natural disposition upon which Allaah created mankind), and this is considered as cutting the relationship with one�s kinship, and it incurs the wrath of Allaah. However, we do not understand what you mean by the effect this may have on their relationship or on the relationship between them and their parents. If you mean that this may affect the family lineage in a way that this will lead to nullifying the blood relationship between them, like him not remaining her brother and her not remaining his sister, and that their parents do not remain as their parents, then the answer is that such conduct would not have any effect on this relationship anyway. For more, please refer to Fatwas 84192 and 82317.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A café tables outside on a street where women pass
Question 116763: I'm about to open a cafe and pizzeria, the cafe exists in the main street and then women use this street, by the way people who are sitting in the cafe look at women and also tables are placed in fron...
Question 116763: I'm about to open a cafe and pizzeria, the cafe exists in the main street and then women use this street, by the way people who are sitting in the cafe look at women and also tables are placed in front of the cafe. Is this business Halal or not?
Answer: Praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all his Family and Companions. Opening a shop or a cafeteria on a main road used by women is allowed if there is no other reason that prevents doing it. Basically, indulging in all kinds of lawful businesses is permissible. Women passing by shops or roads are a common matter and it is almost impossible to get a road used for business where there are no women. However, men and women are both asked to abide by the rulings of Shariah like lowering their gaze from looking at opposite sex, etc. Allah Says (interpretation of meaning): {Say to the believing men that they should lower their gaze and guard their modesty: that will make for greater purity for them: and Allah is well acquainted with all that they do. And say to the believing women that they should lower their gaze and guard their modesty; that they should not display their beauty and ornaments except what (must ordinarily) appear thereof; that they should draw their veils over their bosoms �}[24:30-31]. Allah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A call center agent linking customers to commercial insurance companies
Question 115677: Assalam alikum, Am from India, my friend is working in a call center company where she get calls from United Kingdom regarding vehicle insurance. People call and change the policies or renew it. Is't ...
Question 115677: Assalam alikum, Am from India, my friend is working in a call center company where she get calls from United Kingdom regarding vehicle insurance. People call and change the policies or renew it. Is't ok to continue with the job or she has to leave the JOB. Jazakallah
Answer:
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. We have already issued Fatwa 81425 clarifying the prohibition of different types of commercial insurance. So, if something is forbidden, it is not permissible to help in it by any means as Allaah Says (what means): {Help you one another in virtue, righteousness and piety but do not help one another in sin and transgression.}[Quran 5:2] Therefore, if this woman receives calls of insurance customers and links them to the insurance companies for renewing the policies and so forth, then this is helping in sin. So, she is obliged to refrain from doing so and if she cannot refrain from doing so, she must leave this job. However, she is not permitted to continue doing this job except for a necessity. For more benefit on the religious requirements for woman�s work, please refer to Fatwa 83607. Finally, it should be mentioned that it is not permissible for a Muslim man to have friendship with a non-Mahram woman, as this is a means for evil and corruption. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A caller to Allaah must comply with Islamic regulations
Question 104188: One of my friends is having a relationship with a non-Muslim girl and he wants to call her to Islam. What advice would you give him?
Question 104188: One of my friends is having a relationship with a non-Muslim girl and he wants to call her to Islam. What advice would you give him?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and messenger. Calling to Allaah The Almighty is obligatory on every Muslim as long as he is able to assume this task. However, Islamic regulations and limits should be observed at all times, because it is impermissible to enjoin what is good while violating the commandments of Sharee'ah. For example, it is prohibited for the one propagating Islam to address women (if a woman can do the task), mix with them, look at them, or meet them in seclusion.Generally, most of those who call women to embrace Islam or to adhere to it commit some prohibited acts, such as engaging in conversation beyond the scope of Da'wah, and this leads to suspicion and corruption. It is rare that a person manages to avoid doing this.Therefore, we advise your friend not to assume this task himself, because it is always better to stay on the safe side. He could, however, try to assign this task to one of his Mahram women like his sister, mother or aunt. If this is not possible, he should refer the girl to any Islamic center. Otherwise, he could make use of books and audio material to call her to Islam. If it is inevitable that he must speak to her, he should take a third party with him to protect them both from temptation. However, if he feels that both he and this girl could become subjected to temptation, then he must abandon this task, since it is better to protect him and others from harm. Finally, it is important to note that it is prohibited in Islam to establish any relation with the opposite sex outside the bond of marriage. He must ask himself before establishing any relation; do I accept my sister or any of female Mahram to have the same relationship with a man?Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A case of a controversial marriage and Khul'
Question 118470: Respected Mufti I did secrete nikah with an already married person against will of my family .My assumption was that ultimately my family would agree. In mean time one my friend told me about carrier ...
Question 118470: Respected Mufti I did secrete nikah with an already married person against will of my family .My assumption was that ultimately my family would agree. In mean time one my friend told me about carrier related consequences of bigamy-loss of eligibility for job. He convinced me for Khula and prepare agreement paper. Discussing the problem with my husband I asked to sign agreement in return of mahar money. He read the paper and expressed his agreement and signed on blank paper and asked me to write the agreement. Later on I told him on phone about my decision not to return to him as wife and to consider nikah void. He said o k. My friend, having three children, who told me about consequences is very much concern about my family relation and carrier. He always asked me and work hard for my better carrier. He helps me much in my carrier building. He has also proposed me, he is so affectionate that some time he touch/kiss me but I never realized any bad intention, even when we were alone for hours. Now I want to know 1. Weather I can continue talking and meeting with person i did nikah and to whom I love very much and divorced is executed or not 2 is my relation with my friend allowed to any extent. If he would not have been in my life, my family relation, carrier, personal and social life would have been distracted
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and messenger. First of all, you should know that among the conditions of a valid marriage is the [consent of a] matrimonial guardian. This is the view of the majority of the scholars and it is the preponderant view contrarily to the view of Abu Haneefah . For more information, please refer to Fataawa 83629 and 86348. Therefore, this marriage must be invalidated unless it was conducted based on following the view of Abu Haneefah, in which case, such a marriage is effective as clarified in Fatwa 89782. If the marriage took place in secret between you and this man without the agreement of a matrimonial guardian and without the presence of two witnesses, then this marriage is inconsiderable under Sharee'ah and it must be invalidated as we have already clarified in Fatwa 120282. Moreover, there are some pillars for Khul� without which it is not valid, among which is the formula. In addition to this, the husband signing a paper of Khul� is considered a metaphor or indirect formula of Khul�, in which case, Khul' does not take place except with an intention. Also, his saying 'ok� in response to your statement that you do not wish to return to him as a wife, depends on his intention as well. For more benefit, please refer to Fataawa 121973 and 235219.As you see, there are many details and ambiguities about the matter and it needs to be investigated properly. So it is more appropriate to resort to an Islamic court or an authority that is specialized in looking into such personal issues of the Muslims in your country, or to orally ask a reliable scholar who lives there. If we presume that an irrevocable divorce has taken place between you and your husband, then he has become a non-Mahram man (a stranger) to you, so you must deal with him on this basis. You are not permitted to speak to him except for a necessity and you should not allow him to be in seclusion with you except in the presence of one of your male Mahram relatives. The same thing applies to the man whom you referred to as a friend. He is a non-Mahram to you, and it is not permissible for you to take lightly the matter of dealing with him in such a way that contradicts the Islamic Sharee'ah. It is evil that he touched you and kissed you as you mentioned, and it is evil also to be in seclusion with him. Therefore, you are obliged to repent for this and be stern in dealing with that man; otherwise, this could lead to undesirable consequences. Saying that he is kind to you is not a sound reason for exceeding the Islamic limits in dealing with him. For more information, please refer to Fatwa 81356. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A case of a defective marriage of a new Muslim woman
Question 118063: I converted to Islam two years ago and married a Muslim man. As I am a Westerner and have previously been divorced, my husband said that this would be unacceptable to his family and that the marriage ...
Question 118063: I converted to Islam two years ago and married a Muslim man. As I am a Westerner and have previously been divorced, my husband said that this would be unacceptable to his family and that the marriage must be a secret as his family would disown him. We did not marry in a mosque but we had a contract, I had no guardian (wali) for the marriage, and we had two non-Muslim witnesses who were sworn to secrecy about the marriage. There was no announcement and the marriage had to be kept secret from my husband's family. I did tell my family about it, and when they found out, they disowned me as it was unacceptable for me to marry a Muslim in their eyes. I do not live with my husband. It is possible to live together but he gives many excuses. It is very lonely to not live with my husband and for the marriage to be a secret and for me to have been disowned by my family. My question is whether the original marriage was valid as I had no wali and it was a secret and the witnesses were non-Muslims? I want to separate from him to enable us to sort out our issues and then come back together properly and live together and have a proper companionship. I think that our first marriage was invalid. My husband says that he was ignorant of the rules of a valid marriage and that ignorance means that the marriage is still valid. Can you clarify this for us please?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah and that Muhammad (saw) is His slave and Messenger. Firstly, we would like to congratulate you for your reversion to Islam; verily, this is such a great blessing and a reason for attaining happiness in this worldly life and the Hereafter, Allaah willing. We implore Allaah, The Exalted, to bless you with steadfastness in holding on to the true religion unto the Day of Judgment. We advise you to seek beneficial knowledge and to keep the company of righteous women. You should know that such a marriage conducted in the absence of the bride�s wali and with two non-Muslim witnesses is defective (faasid). The presence of the bride�s wali is one of the conditions for the validity of the marriage contract in Islam according to the preponderant opinion of scholars; please refer to fatwa 83629. Moreover, it is invalid to have a non-Muslim as a witness to a marriage contract of a Muslim, as underlined in fatwa 85791. Ignorance of the relevant religious ruling may be a valid excuse for relieving the doer from the burden of sin; however, it does not render the marriage contract valid. The termination of a defective marriage is done either through legal termination of the marriage contract or a divorce issued by the husband, as highlighted in fatwa 243013. If you wish to retain your marriage, you should renew the marriage contract (i.e. conduct a new marriage contract) in the correct way, bearing in mind that a non-Muslim cannot be a Muslim bride�s wali. Please refer to fatwa 88488 about those who can act as the bride�s wali in the marriage contract. It should be noted that a marriage is valid as long as all the conditions for its validity are fulfilled, even if it was not announced. Such a marriage is not considered a secret marriage because the announcement of marriage is only recommended and not obligatory. We hope that you would not worry about your family�s reaction and disowning you because of your marriage to a Muslim man because their objection is groundless because of it being contrary to the sharee'ah; verily, the Truth is more deserving of being followed. Moreover, if a woman is a new revert to Islam, holds a different nationality, and has been previously married, then none of these are valid excuses not to marry her. Allaah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A case of a void secret marriage
Question 118964: Dear Sir, A female was in love with a boy. They secretly married on (MORE THAN 3 MONTHS AGO), where their 3 friends were witnesses/nikah khwan and advocate. The boy keeps the nikkah documents and both...
Question 118964: Dear Sir, A female was in love with a boy. They secretly married on (MORE THAN 3 MONTHS AGO), where their 3 friends were witnesses/nikah khwan and advocate. The boy keeps the nikkah documents and both of them are living with their own parents and both girl's and boy's parents do not know of this nikkah. As the boys parents were not in favor of their marriage and the girls parent do not even know that the girl wanted to marry that boy. The boy and girl have never had any relationship. The boy married another woman after a month of this secret nikkah. The 2nd wife does not know about the first wife. And he does not tell her and wants the 1st girl to keep underground forever. The 1st girl wants him to lkeep him as a normal wife, and she has no issue with 2nd wife (parents choice) but the 2nd wife and boys parents may have issue with the 1st secret wife. When the 1st, secret wifes asks him for rights, he said he will divorce and he wants to divorce him. Questions: 1. is the 1st nikkah valid considering no wali from lady side was there? 2. is the 2nd nikkah valid considering the secret nikkah is not in knowledge of anyone except 3 person who ware boys friends. 3. 1st wife and boy have not performed intercourse or not even have met each other since nikkah (more than 3 months ago) how long will the nikkah stay valid? The 1st lady (secret) does not want to end this marriage but when she asks for rights the boy threats of divorce at which the lady gets scared. Please help
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, the Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. The first marriage is void because the consent and presence of the Wali (guardian) are among the conditions for the validity of the marriage contract according to the preponderant opinion of the scholars; for more benefit on the conditions of the validity of marriage, please refer to Fatwa 83629. Since this marriage is void, then that young man is not permitted to have sexual intercourse with that young woman and he is obliged to separate from her. However, the separation in this marriage should be by either the husband issuing divorce or that an Islamic judge invalidates the marriage, as we clarified in Fatwa 92478. Then if this young man is not willing to renew the contract, this girl should submit her affair to Allaah and ask Him to facilitate for her a better husband. In case he did not consummate the marriage with her, she is not entitled to a dowry. As regards the second marriage, if it took place while fulfilling those conditions [i.e. the conditions of a valid marriage contract], then it is a valid marriage. The fact that the first marriage was not made public and the like does not have any effect. Islamically, the husband is not obliged to inform his first wife of his second marriage as clarified in Fatwa 85948. Finally, it should be noted that it is not permissible for a Muslim woman to have an affectionate relationship with a non-Mahram man as this involves much corruption. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A case of conditional divorce
Question 118869: Salaam, I have divorced my wife 3 times and returned her back based upon a scholars advice that I can invalidate on of the divorce since it was out of anger. We encountered another issue and she wrote...
Question 118869: Salaam, I have divorced my wife 3 times and returned her back based upon a scholars advice that I can invalidate on of the divorce since it was out of anger. We encountered another issue and she wrote me an email asking for divorce. I swore/vow that upon a second request for divorce in any form from her, I shall honor her request. She wrote me another (second) request few weeks later, I did not see the email. I engaged her in discussion on how to resolve our problems, during this period she lamented we did not follow the right procedure in returning her back as my wife hence she demanded we start all over again. I responded that since I was advised by a scholar I will not start the process over again as that will mean we have been having illegal sex. In her response to me, she said if I insist I will not do another marriage, she insist she should be divorced or will remain divorced. On this occasion (day) I stumbled on her second email demanding for divorce. As it turned out, she was acting with anger she later realized. Can our marriage subsist or remain? Thank you in anticipation. Abdallah
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger.Taking an oath or vow to divorce your wife if she asks you to divorce her does not lead to divorce once she asks you for divorce. Rather, it is just a promise and you are not obliged to honor it. Accordingly, if you have taken an oath by Allaah The Almighty, confirming that promise, then you should expiate for breaking your oath by feeding or clothing ten poor persons. If you cannot afford that, you should fast for three days. Finally, the bond of marriage still exists between you and your wife as long as you sought a Fatwa from a trustworthy scholar and he told you that the first taking back of your wife was valid.Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A case of conditional divorce in a specific context
Question 117863: My question is about words of conditional divorce uttered by husband in intense anger. A husband and wife were having fights about their baby's illness. Then the wife was accusing her husband about ne...
Question 117863: My question is about words of conditional divorce uttered by husband in intense anger. A husband and wife were having fights about their baby's illness. Then the wife was accusing her husband about neglecting their baby. She was blaming her husband for not taking care of the baby properly and was saying things like, "You are not dedicated to my baby", "I will not let you do this to my baby" and some similar things. The husband who was very mad at the wife said,"Why are you saying she's your baby repeatedly whereas she is my baby as well? You will say our baby". But the wife was angry as well and she said,"I will say my baby a hundred times, Do what you can" Then the husband was very mad and he desperately said,"If you say my baby again divorce will take place, it will happen as many times as you say this". Then the wife just stopped. Then the husband came to his senses and said, "I withdraw this. I did not intend to say that." But the wife was afraid to say "my baby" again. Then the husband explained that although the words came out like if you ever say "my baby" again but his meaning was to indicate phrases like accusing the husband about not being caring to "her baby" as if he was not father to the baby. He hated being accused like that. But his objection was not about the wife saying "my baby" in other contexts like in normal day to day conversations or while praying to Allah or talking with other people/doctors like, "My baby is one year old." or "Please Allah be merciful to my baby". The husband did not want to make talaq conditional on the wife saying such things. But he did not want her to say this to him in times of fight to make him angry. So the way and tone of saying made him angry not the word itself. My question is, can the wife say "my baby" in normal cases? If she avoids saying this during fights in a way that hurts her husband and uses it it normal talks/with other people or lovingly calls the baby "Oh my sweet baby" will any divorce take place?
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallAllaahu 'alayhi wa sallam, is His Slave and Messenger. The words that this husband said constitute a conditional divorce conditioned to his wife's saying, 'My baby;' however, it is in the form of a promise. Therefore, divorce does not take effect unless the husband intended to issue a divorce of immediate effect. Please, refer to Fatwa 269398 on the promise of divorce.The conditional divorce cannot be withdrawn according to the view of the majority of scholars. So, if the husband intended to issue a divorce with an immediate effect and the wife uttered the very expression upon which the husband conditioned the divorce, divorce takes effect according to the opinion of the majority of scholars whether he intended to issue a divorce or merely to threaten her. Shaykhul-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah on the other hand, held that the conditional divorce can be withdrawn. However, if the husband does not withdraw the conditional divorce and his intention was merely to threaten his wife, divorce takes effect according to the view of Ibn Taymiyyah .Divorce is repeated as the wife repeats that expression, because the husband specified that in his statement. For more benefit, please refer to fatwa 142613.In the case in question, we believe that the matter is simple since the husband made it clear that he meant preventing his wife from saying this expression in a specific context, namely accusing her husband of failing to care for the baby. Hence, if the wife said this expression in another context, divorces does not take effect. Please, refer to fatwa 230647.Finally, we advise the husband and wife to adhere to wisdom and reason in addressing the problems that they may encounter. The husband should avoid the words of divorce as they may cause confusion and may even lead to the break up of the family.Allaah knows best. (Source: islam_web)
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A case of defective Mudhaarabah
Question 115229: I (Ayaz Taimuri) have invested Rupees Five Lac in a Business investment of Sales and Purchase of Computerized Embroidery Machines, with my Brother-in-Law (Raheel Sabahat) on the following Business Inv...
Question 115229: I (Ayaz Taimuri) have invested Rupees Five Lac in a Business investment of Sales and Purchase of Computerized Embroidery Machines, with my Brother-in-Law (Raheel Sabahat) on the following Business Investment terms & conditions in writing on a Stamp paper on 1st Day of May, 2012 duly attested by Notary Public. On the execution of this investment agreement, Mr. Raheel Sabahta (Investee) only one deal of embroidery sale and adjusted his profit Rs. 17,000/- in my total investment of Rs. 483,000/- which makes total Rs. 500,000/- and called the TOTAL INVESTMENT of this agreement. After his adjustment, and according to Mr. Raheel Sabahat (Investee) has no deal of Embroidery Sale and purchase till to-date. Kindly note, The Net Profits of the partnership shall be divided between the partners as mentioned below and the Net Losses shall be borne by the (INVESTEE) Raheel Sabaht only. Kindly also note, I have not received till to-date any kind of Profit in my Account against this investment agreement from 1st May, 2012 till to-date. I have been regularly receiving Rs. 3,000/- per months from the Investee (Raheel Sabahat) on the agreed terms and this amount mutually agreed me and Raheel Sabahat shall be adjusted against my profit amounts ONLY and not adjusted my Total Investment amount and till to-date I have received Rs. 57,000/- from INVESTEE Raheel Sabahat and clearly mentioned in this agreement that in case of no profit in my account at the time of termination/expiry of this investment agreement then this monthly payment amounts is borne by Raheel Sabahat (Investee) as terms of Net losses. I wish to discontinue/terminate the Agreement, according to the Clause 2 of the Agreement mentioned below. Keeping in mind the above terms and conditions which was mutually agreed and duly singed both of us., kindly read my Investment Agreement each and every clause very carefully and issue your FATWA in Islamic point of you. AYAZ TAIMURI KARACHI-PAKISTAN
Answer: All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad (saw) is His Slave and Messenger. Your question is somewhat unclear; however, the information provided in the question is enough to consider such a partnership null and void as well as defective because you mentioned that the investee guarantees the capital and incurs the net loss and that he is also obliged to pay a monthly payment regardless of earning profits or incurring loss. If the Mudhaarabah (co-partnership) is defective, then the owner of the capital is entitled to the whole amount of capital and the profits if there are any. If there is loss incurred, it will be incurred solely by the capital owner. The investee is entitled to a wage payment for his work and efforts equal to what is customarily given to a worker according to his situation. Allaah Knows best. (Source: islam_web)